An Lac Secondary School THE FIRST MID TERM TEST ENGLISH 6 The Supervisor''''s signature Paper No Class Date 2022 2023 No Code Student''''s name TIME ALLOWED 60 MINS The Examiner''''s remark Scores The Examiner[.]
Trang 1An Lac Secondary School THE FIRST MID-TERM TEST ENGLISH 6 The Supervisor's signature Paper No :
Student's name :
signature
Paper No :
No Code :
I Pronunciation and stress:
A Choose the word having different stress pattern: (0.5pt)
1 A garage B apartment C garden D laundry
2 A drama B activity C author D novel
B Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest (0.5pt)
3 A cooks B plays C fights D sleeps
4 A magic B acting C fantasy D island
II Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence or answer the questions (3.0 pts)
5 Our apartment is on the third and it does not have a good view
6 I learned about poets like To Hoai, To Huu and Tran Dang Khoa in my class
A biology B math C literature D physics
7 Can you please help me _? The clothes are dirty
A clean the house B sweep the floor C do the laundry D plant the trees
8 This is a between you and me Don’t tell anyone about it
A secret B mystery C fantasy D adventure
9 _ do you spell your name? – J-A-S-O-N
A Why B Where C How D When
10 I don’t like _ in this part of town I want to move somewhere else
A living B live C to live D lives
11 Danny blue eyes and blond hair
A is having B have C is D has
12 My grandmother usually early to go jogging around the park
A gets up B got up C get up D will get up
13 My family moved to Ho Chi Minh City 2013
14.Peter takes care _ her younger sister when his parents are away
A to B of C about D on
15 A: “What subject do you like??”- B: “ _”
A I like Math and English B He does the laundry
C There is one D I love my hometown
16 Trang: Why don’t you sign up for the drama club? Linh: _
A.Yes, of course B Great idea C No, thanks D I’d love to
III Choose the best answer for traffic signs (0.5 pt)
17 A a head only B No entry
C no turn right D No U-turn
18 A Don’t go out B Don’t cut
C Don’t touch D Don’t litter
Trang 2IV Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in the following passage: (2.0 pts)
Jane comes from the USA She (19) with her family in a village It’s very peaceful (20) _ quiet Her family (21) very friendly and helpful Her father works on a (22) site and her mother works in a hotel Jane (23) _to school in the morning and she plays (24) her friends in the afternoon In the evening, she cleans (25) room and does her homework She goes to bed (26) _ 10 p.m
19 A lives B live C don’t lives D does live
22 A worker B hospital C school D construction
V Read the passage: True & False (1.5 pts)
Stephenie Meyer is an American writer who is famous for the Twilight book series She was born in 1973
in Connecticut, USA She studied English literature at Brigham Young University Stephenie started writing the Twilight series after a dream about a young girl falling in love with a vampire She spent three months writing the first book – Twilight The book was successful and she became a popular name all over the world
27 Stephenie Meyer is an American artist
28 She’s an author of the “Twilight” novels
29 It took her three years to write her first book – Twilight
31 What does she do?
32 Her dream was about a young girl with a vampire
A fantastic B dislike C hate D falling in love
VI Supply the correct tenses of verbs or word forms (1.0 pt)
33 As a great _of Vietnamese people, Uncle Ho led a very simple life (lead)
34 I don’t have any subjects at school ( favor)
35.She _tired now.( be )
36.Ngan often to music ( listen )
VII Rearrange these words to make complete sentences (0.5 pt)
37 / the evening / by taxi / She / in / comes home //
→ She _.
38 / sign up for ? / do / Which club / want to / you//
→ Which ?
VIII Rewrite the following sentences, beginning with words given (0.5 pt)
39 John is friendly and generous ( Make question )
→ What ?
40 I like reading book
→I am fond of .
THE END
Trang 3ANSWER KEYS
I Pronunciation and stress:
A Choose the word having different stress pattern: (0.5pt)
1 A garage B apartment C garden D laundry
2 A drama B activity C author D novel
B Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest (0.5pt)
3 A cooks B plays C fights D sleeps
4 A magic B acting C fantasy D island
II Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence or answer the questions (3.0 pts)
5 Our apartment is on the third and it does not have a good view
6 I learned about poets like To Hoai, To Huu and Tran Dang Khoa in my class
A biology B math C literature D physics
7 Can you please help me _? The clothes are dirty
A clean the house B sweep the floor C do the laundry D plant the trees
8 This is a between you and me Don’t tell anyone about it
A secret B mystery C fantasy D adventure
9 _ do you spell your name? – J-A-S-O-N
A Why B Where C How D When
10 I don’t like _ in this part of town I want to move somewhere else
A living B live C to live D lives
11 Danny blue eyes and blond hair
A is having B have C is D has
12 My grandmother usually early to go jogging around the park
A gets up B got up C get up D will get up
13 My family moved to Ho Chi Minh City 2013
14.Peter takes care _ her younger sister when his parents are away
15 A: “What subject do you like??”- B: “ _”
A I like Math and English. B He does the laundry
C There is one D I love my hometown
16 Trang: Why don’t you sign up for the drama club? Linh: _
A.Yes, of course B Great idea C No, thanks D I’d love to
III Choose the best answer for traffic signs (0.5 pt)
17.A a head only B No entry.
C no turn right D No U-turn
18.A Don’t go out B Don’t cut
C Don’t touch D Don’t litter.
IV Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in the following passage: (2.0 pts)
Jane comes from the USA She (19) with her family in a village It’s very peaceful (20) _ quiet Her family (21) very friendly and helpful Her father works on a (22) site and her mother works in a hotel Jane (23) _to school in the morning and she plays (24) her friends in the afternoon In the evening, she cleans (25) room and does her homework She goes to bed (26) _ 10 p.m
19 A lives B live C don’t lives D does live
Trang 421 A are B was C is D did
22 A worker B hospital C school D construction
V Read the passage: True & False (1.5 pts)
Stephenie Meyer is an American writer who is famous for the Twilight book series She was born in 1973
in Connecticut, USA She studied English literature at Brigham Young University Stephenie started writing the Twilight series after a dream about a young girl falling in love with a vampire She spent three months writing the first book – Twilight The book was successful and she became a popular name all over the world
27 Stephenie Meyer is an American artist False
28 She’s an author of the “Twilight” novels True
29 It took her three years to write her first book – Twilight False
31 What does she do?
32 Her dream was about a young girl with a vampire
A fantastic B dislike C hate D falling in love
VI Supply the correct tenses of verbs or word forms (1pt)
33 As a great leader of Vietnamese people, Uncle Ho led a very simple life (lead)
34 He is very friendly
35.She is tired now.( be )
36.Ngan often listens to music
VII Rearrange these words to make complete sentences (0.5 pt)
37 /the evening / by taxi / She / in / comes home /
→ She come home in the evening by taxi.
38 / sign up for ? / do /Which club / want to/ you/
→ Which club do you want to sign up for?
VIII Rewrite the following sentences, beginning with words given (0.5 pt)
39 John is friendly and generous ( Make question )
What is John like?
40 I like reading book
→I am fond of reading book.
Trang 5MATRIX – THE FIRST MID -TERM - 60 MINUTES - ENGLISH 6
COURSE BOOK AND UNIT RANGE: ENGLISH 6, FROM UNIT 1 TO 3
1 Test objectives: Students are able to master what they have learned from Unit 1 to Unit 3 including vocabulary, grammar points, structures so on
2 Language area/skills:
o Structures / grammar:
+ Simple Present
+ “and” and “or” for positive and negative statement
+ Simple continuous
+ Like/love/ enjoy + Ving
+ Possesive Pronoun
+ Word form
+ Tense or form of verb
+ Preposition
o Reading skill: Scan for specific information
+ Fill the correct word in the blank (multiple choice)
+ True/False
o Writing skill:
+ Rearrange
+ Make question with the given words
+ Rewrite the sentences without changing their meanings
3 Timing: 60 minutes
4 Number of test items: 40
5 Scoring scheme: 10
27- 32 Reading: True/ False + main idea (6x 0.25) 1.5 15%
33-36 Word form (language)
Verb tenses (4x 0.25)
Trang 66 Table of test specifications (Matrix)
Ord objectives
Knowledge comprehensi
on
Application Analysis,
Synthesis
Weight
I
II Multiple choice
IV
Reading 1
(Fill in the
= 20%
V (True/Flase,Reading 2
= 15%
= 5%
10,0
= 100%
Trang 74 Sound Unit 2 Comprehension MC
19 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit 1 Application MC
20 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit 1 Comprehension MC
21 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit 1 Application MC
22 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit 1 Knowledge MC
23 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit 1 Application MC
24 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit 1 Comprehension MC
25 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit 1 Application MC
26 Reading : Guided-Cloze test Unit 1 Knowledge MC
27 Reading: True / False task Unit 3 Knowledge T/F
28 Reading: True / False task Unit 3 Knowledge T/F
29 Reading: True / False task Unit 3 Comprehension T/F
30 Reading: True / False task Unit 3 Comprehension T/F
31 Reading: Choose the best answer Unit 3 Comprehension MC
32 Reading: Choose the best answer Unit 3 Comprehension MC
Trang 835 Word form Unit 3 Application RW