Department Of Education And Training Of Binh Tan District English 6 NGUYEN TRAI SECONDARY SCHOOL GRADE 6 SEMESTER 1 I Choose the word having different stress pattern (0 5 pt) 1 A visit B enter C under[.]
Trang 1NGUYEN TRAI SECONDARY SCHOOL - GRADE 6 - SEMESTER 1
I. Choose the word having different stress pattern (0.5 pt)
1 A visit B enter C under D about
2 A computer B beautiful C dangerous D comfortable
II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently (0.5 pt)
3 A arrive B answer C papaya D machine
4 A final B alike C China D visit
III Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, D) that best completes each sentence (3,0 pts)
5 “Excuse me How far is the hotel from here?”-“ ”
A OK B I’m fine C You’re welcome D 5-minute walk
6 “Do you ever play computer games?”-“ _.”
A Yes, sometimes B That is a book C I’m Jane D Good bye
7 My television is my living room
8 The restaurant is Tran Hung Dao street
9 My sister often _ badminton with me
A don’t play B playing C plays D play
10 “What does she _ to do, Bin?” – “I don’t know.”
A want B wants C wanting D not want
11 People from the UK are
A English B United Kingdom C American D British
12 Pizza is an Italian
A drink B house C food D animal
13 Ho Chi Minh _ is very big and beautiful
A city B town C village D nation
14 My teacher is good She speaks four
A languages B nations C messages D classes
15 is the bus station from here? It’s about ten minutes on foot
A How far B How old C How many D How much
16 How many are there in the classroom?
A desks B stool C bench D couch
IV Look at the signs Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each sign: (0.5 pt)
17 What does this sign mean?
A Don’t drink
B Don’t eat C No foodD Drink allowed
18 What does this sign mean?
A Roundabout
B No turning right C No entry D No parking
V Use the correct tenses or form of verb (1.0 pt)
19 They _ my brothers (be)
20 She on Tran Van On Street (live)
21 Everyone doesn’t like her sister because she is (friendly)
22 My mother is into _ (photograph)
VI Reading A Choose the best answer fits the space in the following passage (2.0 pts)
Trang 2City on the Sea
Imagine a five-star hotel with (23) food and (24) _ room Imagine a square, shops, cinemas and theaters Imagine all of these things on one very big ship: Oasis of the Seas
More than 2,000 people work on Oasis of the Seas, and there are (25) for 6,360 (26) That’s a lot of people and they eat a lot of food in the ship’s twenty cafés and restaurants There are 250 (27) _!
It is the first ship with a park It is (28) _ Central Park and it (29) _ got fifty real trees and 12,000 plants If you like sports, there are also five swimming pools and there is an exciting sports area with a (30) _ wall If you prefer reading, there is a library, but relax-there is not a school on the ship
23 A fantastic B ugly C scary D horrible
24 A comfortable B the comfortable C comfort D the comfort
25 A cabin B cabins C the cabin D the cabins
26 A the passenger B passenger C passengers D the passengers
27 A chefs B chef C the chefs D the chefs
28 A calls B called C calling D.t o call
30 A to climb B climb C the climbing D climbing
VII Reading Comprehension (1.5 pt)
Sue and Noel Radford have got 22 sons and daughters and they’ve also got six grandchildren It’s a big family, and they are very organized
Noel gets up at 4.45 a.m, has breakfast and goes to work The children get up at 6.45 a.m Sue works at home Her older daughter sometimes helps with the housework The younger children don’t help They watch TV with their brothers and sisters Sue doesn’t watch TV a lot The Radfords don’t usually go to restaurants because it is expensive
The young children normally go to bed at 7 P.M, the older ones at 8 P.M or 9 P.M And their parents go to bed just before 10 P.M
* Read the passage Then write True or False (1.0 pt)
31 Sue and Noel Radford have 7 grandchildren
32 Noel never has breakfast
33 The Radfords don’t usually go out for eat
34 Sue doesn’t work in the office
* Choose the best answer: (0.5 pt)
35 What time do the children get up?
A 4.45 a.m B 5.45 a.m C 5.45 a.m D 6.45 a.m
36 Does Sue watch TV a lot?
A Yes, she does B Yes, she isn’t C No, she is D No, she doesn’t
VIII Rearrange the words given to make the meaningful sentences (0.5 pt)
37 / in England / is a / very interesting city / Norwich /./
38 / my/ favorite place / The castle/ is/./
IX Rewrite (0,5pt)
39 There are four people in Jane’s family.
How many ?
40 The clock is near the poster.
Where ?
Trang 3The end of the test
NGUYEN TRAI SECONDARY SCHOOL - GRADE 6 - SEMESTER 1
ANSWER KEYS
I. Choose the word having different stress pattern (0.5 pt)
1 A visit B enter C under D about
2 A computer B beautiful C dangerous D comfortable
II. Find the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently (0.5 pt)
3 A arrive B answer C papaya D machine
4 A final B alike C China D visit
III Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, D) that best completes each sentence (3.0 pts)
5 “Excuse me How far is the hotel from here?”-“ ”
A OK B I’m fine C You’re welcome D 5-minute walk
6 “Do you ever play computer games?”-“ _.”
A Yes, sometimes B That is a book C I’m Jane D Good bye
7 My television is my living room
8 The restaurant is Tran Hung Dao street
9 My sister often _ badminton with me
A don’t play B playing C plays D play
10 “What does she _ to do, Bin?” – “I don’t know.”
11 People from the UK are
A English B United Kingdom C American D British
12 Pizza is an Italian
A drink B house C food D animal
13 Ho Chi Minh _ is very big and beautiful
14 My teacher is good She speaks four
A languages B nations C messages D classes
15 is the bus station from here? - It’s about ten minutes on foot
16 How many are there in the classroom?
A
IV Look at the signs Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each sign: (0.5 pt)
17 What does this sign mean?
A Don’t drink
B Don’t eat C No foodD Drink allowed
18 What does this sign mean?
A
Roundabout
B No turning right C No entry D No parking
V Use the correct tenses or form of verb (1.0 pt)
Trang 421 Everyone doesn’t like her sister because she is unfriendly. (friendly)
22 My mother is into photography (photograph)
VI Reading
A Choose the best answer fits the space in the following passage (2.0 pts)
City on the Sea
Imagine a five-star hotel with (23) food and (24) _ room Imagine a square, shops, cinemas and theaters Imagine all of these things on one very big ship: Oasis of the Seas
More than 2,000 people work on Oasis of the Seas, and there are (25) for 6,360 (26) That’s a lot of people and they eat a lot of food in the ship’s twenty cafés and restaurants There are 250 (27) _!
It is the first ship with a park It is (28) _ Central Park and it (29) _ got fifty real trees and 12,000 plants If you like sports, there are also five swimming pools and there is an exciting sports area with a (30) _ wall If you prefer reading, there is a library, but relax-there is not a school on the ship
23 A fantastic B ugly C scary D horrible
24 A comfortable B the comfortable C comfort D the comfort
25 A cabin B cabins C the cabin D the cabins
26 A the passenger B passenger C passengers D the passengers
27 A chefs B chef C the chefs D the chefs
28 A calls B called C calling D to call
30 A to climb B climb C the climbing D climbing
VII Reading Comprehension (1.5 pt)
Sue and Noel Radford have got 22 sons and daughters and they’ve also got six grandchildren It’s a big family, and they are very organized
Noel gets up at 4.45 a.m, has breakfast and goes to work The children get up at 6.45 a.m Sue works at home Her older daughter sometimes helps with the housework The younger children don’t help They watch TV with their brothers and sisters Sue doesn’t watch TV a lot The Radfords don’t usually go to restaurants because it is expensive
The young children normally go to bed at 7 P.M, the older ones at 8 P.M or 9 P.M And their parents go to bed just before 10 P.M
* Read the passage Then write True or False (1.0 pt)
31 Sue and Noel Radford have 7 grandchildren FALSE
32 Noel never has breakfast FALSE
33 The Radfords don’t usually go out for eat TRUE
34 Sue doesn’t work in the office TRUE
* Choose the best answer: (0.5 pt)
35 What time do the children get up?
B 4.45 a.m B 5.45 a.m C 5.45 a.m D 6.45 a.m
36 Does Sue watch TV a lot?
B Yes, she does B Yes, she isn’t C No, she is D No, she doesn’t
IX Rearrange the words given to make the meaningful sentences (0.5 pt)
37 / in England / is a / very interesting city / Norwich /./
Norwich is a very interesting city in England.
38 / my/ favorite place / The castle/ is/./
The castle is my favourite place.
IX Rewrite (0,5pt)
39 There are four people in Jane’s family.
How many people are there in Jane’s family?
Trang 540 The clock is near the poster.
Where is the clock?
The end of the test
TERM TEST 1
I School: NGUYEN TRAI SECONDARY SCHOOL
II Class: 6
III Course book and unit range: FRIEND PLUS 6
IV Number of students: 45 Ss PER CLASS
V Test writer: DINH QUOC BINH
1 Test objectives: Students are able to master what they have learned in Starter unit – unit 4
including vocabularies, grammar points, structures,
2 Language area/skills:
- Use prepositions of position
- Talk about hobbies, …
- Adverb of frequency
- Describe sports and activities, daily routines
- Structures / grammar:
+ Make questions + Simple present + Present continuous
- Reading skill: Scan for specific information
- Writing skill: Rearrange and rewrite the sentences without changing their meanings
3 Timing: 45 minutes
3 Number of test items: 40
4 Scoring scheme: 10
3-4 Pronunciation (2x0.25) 0.5 5%
5-16 Language/speaking (10x0.25) 3.0 30%
19-26 Cloze reading (8x0.25) 2.0 20%
33- 36 Word form (language) and Verb
39-40 Transformation /writing (2x0.25) 0.5 5%
1
Table of test specifications (Matrix):
Trang 6Ord objectives
Knowledge comprehensio
n Application Synthesis Analysis,
Weight Wr
itin g
MC Writi
ng MC Writi ng MC Writi ng MC I
= 5%
= 5%
III
Multiple
choice
( 4 options)
= 30%
= 5%
V
Read the
passage 1
1,5
= 15%
VI
Read the
passage 2
= 15%
= 10%
= 5%
= 5%
Trang 7Total 9 7 13 4 7 2 10,0
= 100%
1 Vocabulary Stress (starter unit) Comprehension MC
2 Vocabulary Stress (starter unit) Comprehension MC
3 Vocabulary Pronounced (unit 3) Comprehension MC
5 Vocabulary Pronounced (unit 3) Comprehension MC
5 Preposition of
position Vocabulary (unit 4) Comprehension MC
6 Preposition of
position Vocabulary (Starter unit) Comprehension MC
7 Tense Language focus (Starter unit) Knowledge MC
8 Tense Language focus (unit 1) Knowledge MC
9 Vocabulary Vocabulary (Starter unit) Knowledge MC
10 Vocabulary Vocabulary (Starter unit) Knowledge MC
11 Vocabulary Vocabulary (unit 1) Knowledge MC
12 Vocabulary Vocabulary (unit 2) Knowledge MC
13 Vocabulary Vocabulary (unit 1) Knowledge MC
14 Vocabulary Vocabulary (unit 4) Knowledge MC
15 Speaking Speaking (unit 1) Comprehension MC
16 Speaking Speaking ( unit 3) Comprehension MC
19 Cloze reading Reading 1(4 options) (unit 1) Knowledge MC
20 Cloze reading Reading 1(4 options) (unit 1) Comprehension MC
21 Cloze reading Reading 1(4 options) (unit 2) Comprehension MC
22 Cloze reading Reading 1(4 options) (unit 2) Knowledge MC
23 Cloze reading Reading 1(4 options) (starter unit) Knowledge MC
24 Cloze reading Reading 1(4 options) (unit 1) Comprehension MC
Trang 825 Cloze reading Reading 1(4 options) (unit 2) Comprehension MC
26 Cloze reading Reading 1(4 options) (unit 1) Knowledge MC
27 Cloze reading Reading 1(4 options) (starter unit) Knowledge MC
28 Cloze reading Reading 1(4 options) (unit 1) Application MC
29 Cloze reading Reading 1 (starter unit) Knowledge T/F
30 Cloze reading Reading 1 (unit 2) Comprehension T/F
31 Cloze reading Reading 1 (unit 2) Knowledge WF
32 Cloze reading Reading 1 (unit 2) Application WF
33 Word form: players Word form: noun Comprehension WF
34 Word form:
beautiful Word form: adjective Comprehension WF
35 Simple tense Verb tense (unit 1) Comprehension RW
36 Simple tense Verb tense (unit 2) Application RW
39 Rewrite (How
many) Make question (unit 4) Application RW
40 Rewrite (Where) Transformation (unit 3) Knowledge RW