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8 The bus opera-tor will wait there until the police arrive, will allow passengers off the bus at this point, and no passen-gers are allowed on until the situation is resolved.. Which of

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20 Which of the following changes is needed in the

passage?

a Part 8: Change its to it’s.

b Part 6: Change their to its.

c Part 6: Change than to then.

d Part 5: Change researchers to researchers’.

21 Which of the following parts uses an adverb

incorrectly?

a Part 2

b Part 8

c Part 6

d Part 4

22 Which of the following numbered parts should

be revised to reduce unnecessary repetition?

a Part 5

b Part 6

c Part 2

d Part 8

Questions 23–25 are based on the following passage.

(1) Loud noises on buses not only irritate passengers

but also create unsafe situations (2) They are

pro-hibited by law and by agency policy (3) Therefore,

bus operators are expected to follow the procedures

outlined below

(4) A passenger-created disturbance is by

play-ing excessively loud music or creatplay-ing loud noises in

some other manner (5) In the event a passenger

creates a disturbance, the bus operator will politely

ask the passenger to turn off the music or stop

mak-ing the loud noise (6) If the passenger refuses to

comply, the bus operator will tell the passenger that

he or she is in violation of the law and bus policy and

will have to leave the bus if he or she will not

com-ply to the request (7) If police assistance is

requested, the bus operator will stay at the location

from which the call to the Command Center was placed or the silent alarm used (8) The bus opera-tor will wait there until the police arrive, will allow passengers off the bus at this point, and no passen-gers are allowed on until the situation is resolved

23 Which of the following numbered parts contains

a sentence fragment?

a Part 4

b Part 7

c Part 3

d Part 6

24 Which of the following is the best revision of the

sentence numbered Part 8 in the passage?

a Bus operators will wait there until the police

arrive, will allow passengers off the bus at this point, and no passengers will be allowed on until the situation is resolved

b Bus operators will wait there until the police

arrive, will allow passengers off the bus at this point, and, until the situation is resolved, no passengers are allowed on

c Bus operators will wait there until the police

arrive, will allow passengers off the bus at this point, and will not allow passengers on until the situation is resolved

d Bus operators will wait there until the police

arrive, will allow passengers off the bus at this point, and no passengers will be allowed on until the situation is resolved

25 Which of the following numbered parts uses a

preposition incorrectly?

a Part 2

b Part 6

c Part 3

d Part 8

Trang 2

Questions 26–28 are based on the following passage.

(1) In 1519, Hernando cortez led his army of

Span-ish Conquistadors into Mexico (2) Equipped with

horses, shining armor, and the most advanced

weapons of the sixteenth century, he fought his way

from the flat coastal area into the mountainous

high-lands (3) Cortez was looking for gold, and he were

sure that Indian groups in Mexico had mined large

amounts of the precious metal (4) First, he

con-quered the groups and then seized their precious

gold using very organized methods

26 Which of the underlined words in the passage

above could be replaced with a more precise verb?

a was looking

b equipped

c conquered

d seized

27 Which of the following sentences uses the verb

incorrectly?

a Part 1

b Part 2

c Part 3

d Part 4

28 Which of the following changes needs to be

made to the above passage?

a Part 2: Delete the comma after horses.

b Part 1: Capitalize the c in Cortez.

c Part 3: Insert a comma after groups.

d Part 4: Place a semicolon after groups.

Questions 29 and 30 are based on the following passage.

(1) A report on dropout rates in the United States

released by the U.S Department of Education’s

National Center for Education Statistics found that

more young adults are completing high school

through alternative methods, such as the GED

(2) “Alternative programs that give young

peo-U.S Secretary of Education Richard W Riley (3)

“We need to develop more, higher-quality, alterna-tive programs than meet this rising demand (4) Young people at risk should not just be left on their own to hang out on the street (5) New attention needs to be paid to finding ways to encourage many more dropouts to drop back in to school so that they have a real chance at living a decent life (6) When young people drop out, they do more than just give up their education, they are, too often, giv-ing up on themselves.”

29 Which of the following changes needs to be

made to the passage?

a Part 3: Remove the comma after more.

b Part 1: Insert a comma after statistics.

c Part 4: Change their to there.

d Part 3: Change than to that.

30 Which of the following numbered parts contains

a run-on sentence?

a Part 5

b Part 6

c Part 1

d Part 2

Questions 31 and 32 are based on the following passage.

(1) Kwanzaa is a holiday celebrated by many African-Americans from December 26 through January 1 (2)

It pays tribute to the rich cultural roots of Americans

of African ancestry, and celebrates family, commu-nity, and culture, Kwanzaa means the first or the first fruits of the harvest and is based on the ancient African first-fruit harvest celebration (3) The mod-ern holiday of Kwanzaa was founded in 1966 by Dr Maulana Karenga, a professor at Callifornia State University in Long Beach, California (4) The seven-day celebration encourages people to think about their African roots as well as their life in present day America

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31 Which of the following sentences would be the

best topic sentence for a second paragraph on the

same subject?

a The seven fundamental principles on which

Kwanzaa is based are referred to as the Nguzo

Saba.

b These rules consist of unity,

self-determina-tion, collective work and responsibility,

coop-erative economics, purpose, creativity, and

faith

c Each of its seven candles represents a distinct

principle beginning with unity, the center

candle

d Participants celebrate by performing rituals

such as lighting the kinara

32 Which of the following numbered parts in the

passage contains a nonstandard sentence?

a Part 4

b Part 3

c Part 1

d Part 2

Questions 33–35 are based on the following passage.

(1) A metaphor is a poetic device that deals with

comparison (2) It compares similar qualities of two

dissimilar objects (3) With a simple metaphor, one

object becomes the other: Love is a rose Although

this doesn’t sound like a particularly rich image, a

metaphor can communicate so much about a

par-ticular image, that poets utilize them more than any

other type of figurative language (4) The reason

for this is that a poet composes poetry to express

emotional experience (5) Succinctly, what the poet

imagines love to be may or may not be our

percep-tion of love (6) Therefore, the poet’s job is to enable

us to experience it and feel it the same way (7) You

should be able to nod in agreement and say, “Yes,

that’s it! (8) I understand precisely where this guy is

coming from.”

33 The tone of this passage is very formal; the last

sentence is not Which of the following would be more consistent with the tone of the passage?

a This guy is right on.

b I can relate to the poet’s experience.

c I know this feeling.

d This poem gets right to the point.

34 Which of the following numbered parts contains

a nonstandard use of a pronoun?

a Part 3

b Part 5

c Part 6

d Part 7

35 Which of the following adverbs should replace

the underlined word in Part 5?

a Consequently

b Normally

c Occasionally

d Originally

Questions 36–38 are based on the following passage.

(1) If you have little time to care for your garden, be sure to select hardy plants, such as phlox, comfrey, and peonies (2) These will, with only a little care, keep the garden brilliant with color all through the growing season (3) Sturdy sunflowers and hardy species of roses are also good selections (4) As a thrifty gardener, you should leave part of the garden free for the planting of herbs such as lavender, sage, thyme, and parsley

(5) If you have a moderate amount of time, growing vegetables and a garden culture of pears, apples, quinces, and other small fruits can be an interesting occupation, which amply rewards the care languished on it (6) Even a small vegetable and fruit garden may yield radishes, celery, beans, and strawberries that will be delicious on the family table (7)

Trang 4

(8) When planting seeds for the vegetable garden,

you should be sure that they receive the proper

amount of moisture, that they are sown at the right

season to receive the right degree of heat, and that

the seed is placed near enough to the surface to allow

the young plant to reach the light easily

36 Which of the following changes would best help

to clarify the ideas in the first paragraph?

a Omit the phrase, with only a little care, from

Part 2

b Reverse the order of Parts 2 and 3.

c Add a sentence after Part 4 explaining why

saving room for herbs is a sign of thrift in a

gardener

d Add a sentence about the ease of growing

roses after Part 3

37 Which of the following sentences, if inserted in

the blank line numbered Part 7, would be most

consistent with the writer’s development of ideas

in the second paragraph?

a When and how you plant is important to

pro-ducing a good yield from your garden

b Very few gardening tasks are more fascinating

than growing fruit trees

c Of course, if you have saved room for an herb

garden, you will be able to make the yield of

your garden even more tasty by cooking with

your own herbs

d Growing a productive fruit garden may take

some specialized and time-consuming

research into proper grafting techniques

38 Which of the following changes needs to be

made in the passage?

a Part 8: Change sown to sewn.

b Part 5: Change languished to lavished.

c Part 2: Change through to threw.

d Part 8: Change surface to surfeit.

Questions 39 and 40 are based on the following passage.

This selection is from Willa Cather’s short story,

“Neighbor Rosicky.”

(1) On the day before Christmas the weather set in very cold; no snow, but a bitter, biting wind that whistled and sang over the flat land and lashed one’s face like fine wires (2) There was baking going on in the Rosicky kitchen all day, and Rosicky sat inside, making over a coat that Albert had outgrown into an overcoat for John (3) Mary’s big red geranium in bloom for Christmas, and a row of Jerusalem cherry trees, full of berries (4) It was the first year she had ever grown these; Doctor Ed brung her the seeds from Omaha when he went to some medical con-vention (5) They reminded Rosicky of plants he had seen in England; and all afternoon, as he stitched, he sat thinking about the two years in Lon-don, which his mind usually shrank from even after all this while

39 Which of the following numbered parts uses a

verb form incorrectly?

a Part 5

b Part 2

c Part 4

d Part 3

40 Which of the following numbered parts contains

a sentence fragment?

a Part 4

b Part 3

c Part 2

d Part 5

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 S e c t i o n 3 : W r i t i n g ( P a r t B —

W r i t i n g S a m p l e )

Carefully read the writing topic that follows, then

pre-pare a multiple-paragraph writing sample of 300–600

words on that topic Make sure your essay is

well-organized and that you support your central argument

with concrete examples

Bob Maynard has said that “Problems are opportu-nities in disguise.”

Write an essay describing a time in your life when a problem became an opportunity How did you transform the situation? Explain what you did

to turn the problem into an opportunity and how others can benefit from your experience

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 A n s w e r E x p l a n a t i o n s

Section 1: Reading

1 a Choice b emphasizes only damage to the

atmos-phere; the passage encompasses more than that

Choice c does not mention the atmosphere,

which is the main focus of the passage Choice

d is too narrow—the final paragraph of the

pas-sage emphasizes that the circulation of the

atmosphere is but one example of the complex

events that keeps the Earth alive

2 c Choice a is incorrect because the passage does

not explain exactly what will happen as a result

of damage to the atmosphere and other

life-sustaining mechanisms Choice b is incorrect

because the passage does not explain the origin

of the atmosphere Choice d is incorrect because

it is solar energy that travels 93 million miles

through space, not the atmosphere

3 b The biosphere, as defined in the first paragraph,

is a region (or part) of the Earth; it is not the

envelope around the Earth, the living things on

Earth, or the circulation of the atmosphere

(choices a, c, and d).

4 d Choice a deals with solar radiation, not with

circulation of the atmosphere Choice b is an

assertion without specific supporting detail

Choice c describes how the atmosphere

pro-tects Earth but does not speak of the circulation

of the atmosphere Only choice d explains that

conditions would be unlivable at the equator

and poles without the circulation of the

atmos-phere; therefore, it is the best choice

5 a The second paragraph deals with how

varia-tions in the strength with which solar radiation

strikes the Earth affects temperature None of

the other choices is discussed in terms of all

temperature changes on Earth

6 a There is no mention in the first paragraph of any

reviving or cleansing effect the atmosphere may

have (choices b and d) In a sense, enabling the

Earth to sustain life is invigorating; however,

choice a is a better choice because the first two

sentences talk about how the atmosphere pro-tects the Earth from harmful forces

7 b Choice b includes the main points of the passage and is not too broad Choice a features minor points from the passage Choice c also features

minor points, with the addition of History of the National Park system, which is not included

in the passage Choice d lists points that are not

discussed in the passage

8 d The information in choices a, b, and c is not

expressed in paragraph 4

9 a Reread the second sentence of paragraph 2 Choices b and c are mentioned in the passage but not as causing the islands; choice d is not

mentioned in the passage

10 c Paragraph 5 discusses the visitors to Acadia National Park, whereas choices a, b, and d are

not mentioned in the passage

11 a The first sentence of paragraph 3 states that the

length of the Maine coastline is 2,500 miles

12 b The other choices could possibly be true, but only choice b fits in the context of the sentence

that follows it, which describes the ruggedness

of the coast and implies that the coast does not lie in a straight line

13 d The passage contains objective information

about accounting such as one might find in a textbook There is nothing new or newsworthy

in it (choice a) The passage does not contain the

significant amount of personal opinion one

would expect to find in an essay (choice b) It

does not deal with matters that might involve

lit-igation (choice c).

14 d The final sentence of the second paragraph

emphasizes the importance of correct

interpre-tation of financial accounting Choice a is

incor-rect because something so important would not

be discretionary (optional) Choice b may be

true, but it is not as important for guidelines to

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