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Physical Sciences

Time: 100 minutes Questions: 1-77

Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group Some questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other If you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining

alternatives Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet A periodic table is provided for your use You may consult it whenever you wish

Passage I

A group of students investigated the properties of

solutions containing Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+, Sr2+, and Ba2+

Flame Test

The students prepared 0.1 M aqueous solutions of

each metal nitrate They dipped a Pt loop into each

solution and heated a drop of each solution over a

flame They recorded the color of the flame (Table 1)

They repeated the flame test with Unknown A, a

solution that contained two of the metal nitrates

They combined 1.0 mL of each metal nitrate solution

with 1.0 mL of each reagent, and the solution either

remained clear or a white precipitate formed (Table

1)

Table 1 Results of Flame Test and Solubility Test of

Metal Nitrate Solutions

Color

Appearance of solution after reagent was

added Metal ion

Ca2+(aq) red clear clear white

ppt

white ppt

Sr2+(aq) red clear white

ppt

white ppt

white ppt

Ba2+(aq) green clear white

ppt

white ppt

white ppt Unknown

white ppt

white ppt

white ppt

white ppt

Note: ppt = precipitate

1 A solution contains 0.1 M Mg2+(aq), 0.1 M

Ca2+(aq), and 0.1 M Sr2+(aq) All three ions can

be precipitated if which two reagents are added to the solution?

A) Reagents 1 and 2B) Reagents 1 and 3C) Reagents 2 and 3D) Reagents 2 and 4

2 A test tube contains 2 mL of 0.1 M Ca2+(aq) A

precipitate will most likely form if which of the following reagents is added to the tube?

A) 1.0 M HCl(aq) B) 1.0 M NaOH(aq)

C) 1.0 M H2SO4(aq)

D) 1.0 M Na2CO3(aq)

3 The students added Reagent 2 to a test tube

containing 0.1 M Ca2+(aq) and 0.1 M Sr2+(aq)

Which of the following procedures will best enable the students to recover a fairly pure sample

of SrSO4(s) from this mixture?

A) Allowing the water to evaporate and collecting the solid that remains in the tube

B) Pouring the mixture through a filter, collecting the insoluble substance, and allowing the water to evaporate from the insoluble substance C) Pouring the mixture through a filter, collecting the filtrate containing the soluble substance, then allowing the water to evaporate from the filtrate D) Adding Reagent 3, pouring the mixture through

a filter, collecting the filtrate containing the soluble substance, and allowing the water to evaporate from the filtrate

4 The information in Table 1 suggests that which of

the following substances has the smallest Ksp?

A ) MgSO4

B ) MgC2O4

C ) CaSO4

D ) CaC2O4

5 A solution contains either Ca2+(aq) or Sr2+(aq)

Which of the following actions will best enable the students to identify the ion in the solution?

A) Performing a flame test B) Adding Reagent 1C) Adding Reagent 2D) Adding Reagent 3

Passage II

Students constructed the electrical circuit shown

below to study capacitors A battery with a voltage of

10 V is connected through a switch to a capacitor and

a 500-Ω resistor The capacitor is constructed from

two flat metal plates, each with a surface area of 5.0 ×

10–5 m2 The plates are separated by 1.0 × 10–3 m, and

the space between the plates is a vacuum The

connecting wires have no resistance After the switch

is closed and the capacitor is fully charged, a particle

with a charge of 8.0 × 10–19 C and a speed of 1.0 m/s

is injected midway between the capacitor plates

Figure 1 Circuit

6 Which of the following graphs best illustrates how

charge accumulates on the plates of the capacitor after the switch is closed?

A)

B)

C)

D)

7 If the speed of the charged particle described in the

passage is increased by a factor of 2, the electrical force on the particle will:

A) decrease by a factor of 2

B) remain the same

C) increase by a factor of 2

D) increase by a factor of 4

8 Making which of the following changes to a circuit

element will increase the capacitance of the

9 A charged particle with a mass of m and a charge

of q is injected midway between the plates of a

capacitor that has a uniform electric field of E

What is the acceleration of this particle due to the

10 Another capacitor, identical to the original, is

added in series to the circuit described in the

passage Compared to the original circuit, the

equivalent capacitance of the new circuit is:

A ) 1/2 as great

B ) the same

C ) 2 times as great

D ) 4 times as great

11 Which of the following best describes the motion

of a negatively charged particle after it has been injected between the plates of a charged, parallel-plate capacitor? (Note: Assume that the area between the plates is a vacuum.)

A) It moves with constant speed toward the positive plate

B) It moves with constant speed toward the negative plate

C) It accelerates toward the positive plate

D) It accelerates toward the negative plate

Passage III

Gasoline is a mixture of nonpolar hydrocarbons

that reacts with oxygen in an automobile engine to

produce energy, carbon dioxide, and water vapor If

the gasoline burns too rapidly, a metal piston can be

slammed against a metallic part, resulting in a

“knocking” sound and a reduction in engine

efficiency The octane rating of a gasoline is a

measure of its antiknock qualities The higher the

octane rating of a hydrocarbon mixture, the slower it

burns and the smoother the piston operates

The octane rating scale derives its name from

isooctane (C8H18), a hydrocarbon with good

antiknock qualities A 90:10 mixture of isooctane and

heptane (C7H16) has an octane rating of 90

Oxygenates are oxygen-containing compounds that

can be added to a gasoline to increase the octane

rating Two oxygenates currently in use are MTBE

and ETOH Data for these oxygenates and two other

potential additives are shown in Table 1 A

disadvantage of MTBE is that it has a strong and

offensive odor that humans can smell even at

concentrations below 0.26 ppm in air

Table 1 Data for Gasoline Additives

Additive Formula

Octane rating

Vapor pressure (torr, 25°C)

Heat of formation (kJ/mole)

ETBE C 4 H 9 OC 2 H 5 112 20 –675

12 What type of intermolecular interaction can

ETOH undergo with water that MTBE can NOT?

A ) van der Waals

B ) Dipole–dipole

13 The formation of one mole of which oxygenate

shown in Table 1 releases the most energy? A) ETOH

B) MTBEC) ETBED) TAME

14 What are the coefficients for oxygen and carbon

dioxide, respectively, if the equation shown below is balanced?

1CH 3 OCH 3(ℓ ) + ? O2(g) → H2O(g) + ? CO2(g)

A) 2 and 1B) 2 and 2C) 3 and 1D) 3 and 2

15 Which of the following nonoxygenated analogs

of MTBE is most likely to mimic MTBE in its antiknock properties?

A) C4H9Si(CH3)3B) C4H9N(CH3)2C) C4H9SCH3D) C4H9P(CH3)2

16 The entropy change for the combustion reaction

of gasoline is always greater than zero because the:

A) number of gaseous molecules in the products always exceeds the number of gaseous molecules

in the reactants

B) enthalpy change is always positive

C) temperature of the combustion is always more than 100°C

17 Which compound shown in Table 1 evaporates

18 If one mole of each additive shown in Table 1

undergoes complete combustion, which

compound requires the least amount of oxygen?

A) MTBEB) ETOHC) ETBED) TAME

Passage IV

The detection of low-frequency pressure waves in

stars, infrasonic waves, offers astronomers an insight

into stellar structure Such waves are observed in the

Sun (with frequencies around 3.3 × 10–3 s–1) and are

now being detected in large, bright nearby stars In

one method of detecting them, one looks for Doppler

shifts in light emissions; the Doppler-shifted light

shows periodicities typical of the pressure waves

producing the motion

The pressure waves can be likened to standing

waves in a pipe open at both ends, and an inner layer

of the star can be taken as a large number of

neighboring, outwardly directed columns of gas—

much like a collection of pipes The relationships

derived for ordinary pipes are then useful In a gas of

density ρ and bulk modulus B, the harmonic

frequencies f n for a pipe of length L are given by

where n = 1, 2, 3, , the speed of sound v s is

and the constant B is defined in terms of pressure

and volume changes

Observations are difficult because of the small

velocity changes in the gas, about 1 m/s, associated

with the pressure waves One needs abundant data

(large, bright stars) to separate the Doppler shifts due

to pressure waves from those of thermal origin A

new, different observational technique may help

Stellar atmospheres are mostly hydrogen atoms, and

19 A collection of an unspecified number of

neighboring gas columns, or pipes, can reasonably be used to represent the layer of a star

in which pressure waves occur because the: A) harmonic frequencies of a pipe are independent of its diameter

B) harmonic frequencies of a pipe are independent of its length

C) speed of sound in gas confined to a pipe is independent of gas density

D) speed of sound propagating upward against gravity decreases with height

20 As an aid in identifying the various resonant

pressure-wave frequencies in the Sun and stars, one can use the fact that:

A) the Doppler-shifted light is easily recognized, being polarized in a way that is characteristic of hydrogen

B) the Doppler-shifted light stands out, being steadier in intensity than the unshifted light emissions that accompany it

C) resonant frequencies are always separated by increments that are equal to a basic number multiplied by an integer

D) resonant frequencies in hydrogen gas depend strongly on its degree of gas ionization, which, in turn, depends on temperature

21 In the newer observational technique discussed,

one makes use of the fact that:

A) the hydrogen gas in the observed stellar atmospheres is completely ionized

B) stellar atmospheres are open to space, so that pressure and temperature are independent of

22 The surface temperature of one of the

observed

stars is 6000 K The fraction of its surface

hydrogen atoms having electrons in energy

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

23 H2O is liquid at room temperature, whereas H2S,

H2Se, and H2Te are all gases Which of the

following best explains why H2O is liquid at

room temperature?

A ) Hydrogen bonds form between H2O molecules

B ) Oxygen lacks d orbitals.

C ) H2O has a lower molecular weight

D ) H2O is more volatile

24

How do the pressures P w and P m compare,

measured at the bottom of two identical

containers filled to the levels shown in the figure

with water and mercury? (Note: Density of

water = 1 g/cm3; density of mercury = 14 g/cm3.)

A ) P m = 2P w

B ) P m = 7P w

C ) P m = 14P w

D ) P m = 28P w

25 If the second floor and the top floor of a building

are separated by a distance of 100 m, what is the approximate difference between the air pressures

of the two levels? (Note: Air density = 1.2 kg/m3 and gravitational acceleration = 10 m/s2 Neglect the compressibility of air.)

A) 600 N/m2B) 800 N/m2C) 1000 N/m2D) 1200 N/m2

26 What is the pH of a 001 M NaOH solution?

A) 001B) 3C) 7D) 11

Passage V

The interaction between metals and hydrocarbons

is important in both biological and industrial

catalysis Researchers are probing the fundamental

chemistry of these interactions by measuring the

gas-phase reactivity of transition-metal atoms with

hydrocarbons In a typical reaction, metal atoms are

introduced into a helium buffer gas at the head of a

73-cm fast-flow tube Table 1 shows the initial helium

and metal gas-flow conditions

Table 1 Initial Flow Conditions

0.8 0.96 9070

1.1 0.98 9420

A large excess of a hydrocarbon gas such as

ethene is then injected into the metal gas stream, and

the rate of the reaction is measured by monitoring the

concentration of unreacted metal versus reaction time

(distance/velocity)

Equation 1 shows a proposed one-step reaction

mechanism for the reaction of a metal (M) with a

hydrocarbon (HC)

M(g) + HC(g) → product

Equation 1

If the HC(g) is in a large excess, its concentration

is considered to be constant, and the rate expression

shown in Equation 2 is obtained, in which [M] is the

concentration of metal at time t, and k and k1 are rate

constants

ln [M/Mo] = –k1[HC]t = –kt

Equation 2

Several rate constants reported for metal reactions

with ethene at 298 K are shown in Table 2 (NR = no

reaction) The researchers suggest that two effects

involving metal orbitals influence the reaction rate A

full valence s subshell hinders reaction, and valence s

and d orbitals of similar energy form sd hybrid

orbitals, enhancing the reaction

Table 2 Rate Constants, k (10–12 cm3 s–1), at Three Pressures

Pressure (torr) Pressure (torr) Metal 0.5 0.8 1.1 Metal 0.5 0.8 1.1

28 If the reaction tube described in the passage is 2 cm

in diameter and an initial helium–metal mixture displays ideal gas behavior, which of the following expressions gives the number of moles of He in the tube at 1.1 torr and 298 K? (Note: R = 0.082 L atm

29 What does a nonlinear plot of ln [M] versus t

indicate about the concentration of the

hydrocarbon (HC) and the reaction mechanism?

A ) The HC is not in excess, and the mechanism is

30 According to Table 2 and information in the

passage, the reactivity of platinum (5d 96s1)

relative to gold (5d 106s1) is attributable to the

metal–HC interaction, which involves:

A ) only valence s electrons

B ) sd hybrid orbitals.

C ) sp hybrid orbitals.

C ) only valence d electrons.

31 The metals shown in Table 2 belong to which

block of elements in the periodic table?

A) s B) p C) d D) f

32 Ta reacts slower than Nb (Table 2) because:

A) the valence s orbitals of Ta have a much higher energy than do its valence d orbitals

B) the valence s orbitals of Ta have a much lower energy than do its valence d orbitals

C) the valence s orbitals of Nb have a much higher energy than do its valence d orbitals

D) Ta forms especially stable sd hybrid orbitals.

33 Which of the following expressions gives the

percent mass of hafnium (Hf) in an initial mixture of He–Hf at 0.5 torr?

A) [(0.93)(4.0)(100)]/[(0.07)(178.5) + (0.93)(4.0)]B) [(90.07)(72)(100)]/[(0.07)(972) + (0.93)(2)]

C) [(0.07)(178.5)(100)]/[(0.07)(178.5)+(0.93)(4.0)]D) [(0.07)(200.6)(100)]/[(0.07)(200.6) + (0.93)(4.0)]

Passage VI

The effectiveness of a tire is determined by its

coefficients of kinetic and static friction under

different road conditions The coefficient of static

friction is defined by µS = F(max static)/F(normal),

and for kinetic friction µK = F(kinetic)/F(normal)

The forces refer to the maximum static frictional

force required to start a tire moving, the normal force

exerted by the road supporting the tire, and the kinetic

frictional force on a rolling tire These coefficients are

properties of the road and tire surfaces The

coefficients are measured in two experiments

Experiment 1

A tire is mounted on a wheel whose axle is locked

so that the tire cannot roll on the road The axle

carries weights to a total mass of 500 kg (axle plus

wheel and tire) to simulate the load the tire would

experience during normal use A light rope pulls

horizontally on the axle During the experiment, the

force on the rope is steadily increased until the tire

begins to skid along the road without rotating Once

the tire starts to skid, the dragging force is reduced to

the minimum needed to maintain a steady speed

Table 1 shows the pulling force versus time data for a

measurement made on a dry road

Table 1 Data from Experiment 1

(Note: Approximate the acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2.)

34 In Experiment 1, the acceleration of the hub of

the tire during the first 4 s is:

A) a nonzero constant in the direction of the frictional force

B) a nonzero constant in the direction of the pulling force

C) increasing steadily as the pulling force increases.D) constant and zero

35 What is the coefficient of static friction in

Experiment 1?

A) 1.5B) 1500C) 6000 ND) 7500 N

36 What is the coefficient of kinetic friction in

Experiment 1?

A) 1500 NB) 6000 NC) 1.2D) 1.5

37 The initial translational kinetic energy of the

wheel system in Experiment 2 (just before

applying the brakes):

A ) is less than the magnitude of work required to

stop the tire

B ) is equal to the magnitude of work required to stop

the tire

C ) is greater than the magnitude of work required to

stop the tire

D ) cannot be determined from the information given

38 If a tire with a radius of 0.5 m is rolling with an

angular frequency of 30 rad/s, how far will the axle travel in 2 s?

A) 5 mB) 10 mC) 20 mD) 30 m

Passage VII

The compounds nitric acid (HNO3), nitrous acid

(HNO2), acetic acid (CH3COOH), hypochlorous acid

(HClO), and ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3), are all

water soluble and produce acidic solutions The Ka

values for these compounds are given in Table 1

Table 1 Ka Values

Compound Ka, 25°C HNO3 Large HNO2 4.5 × 10–4

CH3COOH 1.8 × 10–5HClO 3.2 × 10–8NH4NO3 5.6 × 10–10

The titration of these acids with sodium hydroxide

can be done using an indicator to signal the endpoint

Table 2 contains information about some common

acid-base indicators

Table 2 Indicator Properties

Indicator pH range Acidic

color

Basic color Methyl

Methyl red 4.4–6.2 red yellow

Phenol red 6.4–8.2 colorless purple

40 Which of the following mixtures, with each

component present at a concentration of 0.1 M, has a pH closest to 7?

A) HClO(aq) and NaClO(aq)

B) HNO2(aq) and NaNO2(aq)C) CH3COOH(aq) and NaCH3COO(aq)

D) HNO3(aq) and NaNO3(aq)

41 Which of the following equations correctly

represents the dissolution of NH4NO3(s) in water?

NH4NO3(s) NH2+(aq) + NO2–(aq) + H2O

D ) NH4NO3(s) NH4+(aq) + NO3–(aq)

42 When 2.0 mL of 0.1 M NaOH(aq) is added to

100 mL of a solution containing 0.1 M HClO(aq) and 0.1 M NaClO(aq), what type of change in the

pH of the solution takes place?

A) A slight (<0.1 pH unit) increaseB) A slight (<0.1 pH unit) decreaseC) A significant (>1.0 pH unit) increaseD) A significant (>1.0 pH unit) decrease

43 What is the best explanation for the fact that a

solution of NaNO2(aq) is basic?

A ) NO2– is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH –

(aq) ions

B ) Na+ is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH –(aq)

ions

C ) NaNO2(aq) decreases the Ka of HNO2(aq).

D ) NaNO2(aq) increases the Ka of HNO2(aq)

Passage VIII

One can sometimes obtain a fairly good

description of a phenomenon by focusing on a few

key characteristics of a system and ignoring the

subtleties For example, in the flow of a liquid, fairly

decent results can sometimes be obtained by ignoring

the viscosity of the liquid (Physicist Richard

Feynman called the approximation of viscousless

water “dry water.”)

An approximate expression for the fundamental

frequency f of liquid sloshing in a tank (as in Figure

1) is given by

f = (3gH)1/2/πL where H is the height of the liquid, L is the length of

the tank, and g denotes the acceleration due to

gravity, 10 m/s2 This equation assumes that the liquid

lacks viscosity and surface tension, and that the liquid

surface is always flat throughout the sloshing cycle

Calculations using these simplifying assumptions

result in uncertainties of about 10%

The sloshing modes are called seiches They have

been observed in lakes, bays, and swimming pools

Amplitudes of seiches in Lake Geneva in Switzerland

have been observed as large as 5 ft A seiche in Lake

Michigan in 1954 had an amplitude of some 10 ft and

swept away several people who were fishing from

piers Such seiches can be caused by seismic

disturbances or sudden changes in the atmospheric

pressure above one region of a lake

Figure 1 The fundamental sloshing mode of a tank

of liquid The sloshing occurs between

extremes I and III, while II denotes the

equilibrium level

44 Suppose that the atmospheric pressure suddenly

dropped at one end of a large lake, inducing a seiche like that shown in Figure 1 The atmospheric pressure differential between the two ends of a lake is directly proportional to the: A) frequency of the oscillations

B) period of the oscillations

C) wave speed

D) amplitude of the oscillations

45 The principal restoring force responsible for

maintaining the sloshing oscillations in a body

of “dry water” for which surface tension is very small is the:

A) gravitational force

B) viscosity of the water

C) atmospheric pressure above the water

D) hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of the container

46 Compute the period of oscillation for the

fundamental mode of a seiche induced in a lake that averages a depth of 30 m, with a length of

6000 m over which the wave propagates

A) 50π sB) 200π sC) 300π sD) 400π s

47 The actual oscillating surface in Figure 1 would

not remain precisely flat; it would have a half- sine-wave shape Use this fact to determine the

wavespeed v of the fundamental mode of

oscillation

A) v = (2gH)1/2B) v = (3gH)1/2C) v = (3gH)1/2/π

D) v = 2(3gH)1/2/π

48 It was argued in the passage that certain

simplifying assumptions led to the equation for

frequency, which gives frequencies no more than

10% different from the observed seiche

frequencies This equation would prove to be

greatly in error, though, for a:

A ) container with a large width L.

B ) location where the acceleration of gravity is not

10 m/s2

C ) liquid that is very viscous

D ) liquid with zero surface tension

49 Assume that a pan of “dry water” is

momentarily disturbed Which of the following

concepts best explains why the resulting sloshing

oscillations persist for a fairly long time?

A ) Energy conservation

B ) Momentum conservation

C ) Newton’s third law

D ) Archimedes’ principle

50 Regarding Figure 1, which velocity profile

depicted below best shows the variation in velocities across the air–liquid interface of II just after I has occurred?

A)

B)

C)

D)

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

51 In which of the following does sound travel most

rapidly?

A ) Air (0°C)

B ) Water (10°C)

C ) Iron (20°C)

D ) Sound travels at approximately the same speed in

all of the above

52

When beryllium ( Be) is bombarded with

deuterons ( H) of 10 MeV energy, a deuteron is

absorbed and a neutron is emitted Which of the

53 Which action involves more work: lifting a

weight from A to B or lowering the weight from

B to A?

A) Lifting from A to BB) Lowering from B to A C) Equal work in both actionsD) No work is required using a pulley

54 What is the standard emf for the galvanic cell in

which the following overall reaction occurs?

B) +1.35 VC) +4.07 VD) +6.78 V

55 Which of the following shows the electron

configuration of chlorine in NaCl?

A) 1s22s22p63s23p4B) 1s22s22p63s23p5C) 1s22s22p63s23p6D) 1s22s22p63s23p44s2

Passage IX

Earthquake lights (EQLs) have been reported for

centuries These lights are seen in association with

seismic activity and have been reported at distances

hundreds of kilometers from the earthquake, and

often at sea or near large bodies of water EQLs are

usually blue or bluish-white, but yellow lights have

occasionally been reported The source of EQLs has

not been identified, but it has recently been suggested

that they are produced by sonoluminescence (SL), the

production of light by sound waves in a liquid

SL occurs when bubbles form in the liquid during

the rarefaction phase of a sound wave and are then

rapidly compressed during the compressional phase

of the wave The rapid compression causes a large

increase in the temperature of the gas inside the

bubble, causing light to be emitted Both continuum

emission, with a blackbody spectrum, and line

emission from atoms and molecules have been

observed in the laboratory from SL in water

SL has been produced in water in the laboratory

by sound waves carrying an energy density of about

10 erg/cm3 Advancing seismic wavefronts carry a

kinetic energy density e, given by

e = 2π2ρ(A/τ)2

in which ρ is the density of the ambient medium, A is

the wave amplitude, and τ is the wave period

Estimates of these quantities obtained from

ground-motion records of earthquakes give values for e that

are often consistent with the SL hypothesis

The SL spectrum of pure water peaks at a

wavelength of 3.10 × 10–7 m in the ultraviolet

Dissolved salts might contribute to the yellow color

Sodium has, in fact, a particularly strong

characteristic emission at 5.89 × 10–7 m

56 Which of the following statements could explain

the frequently bluish color of EQLs?

A) Sodium salts are common in the earth’s crust, and sodium emissions can be quite bright

B) In transparent substances, dispersion effects are in general greater for longer wavelengths

C) The ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by molecules that then fluoresce at yet shorter wavelengths D) The ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by molecules that then fluoresce at yet longer wavelengths

57 During their compression, little heat is lost by

conduction from the hot vapor bubbles responsible for SL effects because:

A) the process occurs too rapidly for heat loss to be appreciable

B) the heat is carried on the advancing wavefront.C) the surrounding liquid is subjected to the same compressional force

D) convection predominates over other processes in liquids at ordinary temperatures

58 Heating of the vapor bubbles occurs during the

compression phase of the passing waves in SL because:

A) the heat of vaporization of water is high and serves as a barrier to the effect

B) constructive interference in the wave motion is greater than at other times

C) work is being done on the vapor bubbles by forces external to them at that time

D) energy propagates primarily by means of transverse waves at that time

59 Atomic hydrogen has a characteristic spectral

emission at a wavelength of 6.56 × 10–7m that

might contribute to EQLs What color is this

Passage X

Aluminum is obtained commercially by the

electrolysis of Al2O3, which is the major compound in

the ore bauxite Pure Al2O3 is obtained from bauxite

by the Bayer process

The finely ground ore is treated with concentrated

NaOH (35–38%) for 6–8 hours at a high temperature

and pressure, converting Al2O3 into Al(OH)3(aq),

which then reacts with NaOH(aq) to produce

Na[Al(OH)4] as shown in Equation 1

Al(OH)3(aq) + NaOH(aq) → Na[Al(OH)4](aq)

Equation 1

The aqueous base converts the major impurity in

the ore, Fe2O3, into the insoluble Fe(OH)3, which is

removed by filtration

After the impurity is removed, carbon dioxide is

passed through the mixture to precipitate Al(OH)3,

which is collected and dehydrated at 1000°C to yield

pure Al2O3 (equations 2 and 3)

2Na[Al(OH)4](aq) + CO2(g) → Na2CO3(aq) +

2Al(OH)3(s) + H2O(ℓ)

Equation 2

2Al(OH)3(s) + heat → Al2O3(s) + 3H2O(g)

Equation 3

The Al2O3 is mixed with Na3AlF6, a compound

that lowers the melting point of Al2O3 from over

2000°C to about 950°C, making the electrolysis of the

molten salt commercially viable Pure aluminum is

produced by the reaction shown in Equation 4

2Al2O3(ℓ) → 4Al(s) + 3O2(g)

Equation 4

60 Aluminum belongs to what block of elements in

61 What is the oxidation number of aluminum in

Na[Al(OH)4](aq)?

A) +1B) +2C) +3D) +4

62 What is the geometry of the hexafluoroaluminate

ion (AlF63–)?

A) OctahedralB) TetrahedralC) Trigonal bipyramidalD) Hexagonal

63 Approximately how much Al2O3is required to make 100 kg of Al?

A) 500 kgB) 200 kgC) 80 kgD) 50 kg

64 In the reaction shown in Equation 1, Al(OH)3 acts as what kind of acid or base?

A) Lewis acidB) Lewis baseC) Brønsted acidD) Brønsted base

65 At which electrode is aluminum produced in a

galvanic cell and in an electrolytic cell?

A) At the anode in both cells

66 In the reaction shown in Equation 2, three moles

of Al(OH)3 is chemically equivalent to what

volume of CO2(g) measured at 1 atm and 0°C?

A ) 11.2 L

B ) 16.8 L

C ) 22.4 L

D ) 33.6 L

Passage XI

An experimental system is assembled to measure

the focal lengths of lenses and mirrors The system

consists of objects, lenses, mirrors, and devices for

locating images It is placed on a metered optical

bench The system is operated in several

configurations

Converging Lens

To measure the focal length of a converging lens,

an object is placed at A, the 0-cm mark of an optical

bench, and a converging lens is placed at B, the

30-cm mark of the bench This situation forms an image

at D, the 90-cm mark as shown in Figure 1

Figure 1 Optical bench

Convex Mirror

A convex mirror is inserted between the

converging lens (B) and the image position (D)

When the mirror is located at C (50-cm mark), the

light rays are reflected back along the incoming path,

as shown in Figure 2 The dashed lines between

points C and D indicate the path of light rays before

the convex mirror is inserted

Figure 2 Convex mirror

Diverging Lens

The convex mirror is removed from the setup, and

Figure 3 Diverging lens

67 Changing which of the following will change the

focal length of the convex mirror in Figure 2? A) Index of refraction of the mirror

B) Radius of curvature of the mirrorC) Position of the lens at B

D) Focal length of the lens at B

68 As the light passes from the air into the glass, it

makes an angle θa in air and an angle θl in the lens material, relative to the normal at the surface What equation relates the angles θland

69 The converging lens in Figure 1 is removed and

the diverging lens is placed in position B, as shown in the figure below Which of the following best describes the light rays from the diverging lens in this configuration?

A) Converging rays

70 If a very bright light source shines on a mirror,

the mirror may become warm because:

A ) all of the light is reflected, and, by momentum

conservation, the molecules in the mirror move,

producing heat energy

B ) some of the light passes through the mirror, and,

by energy conservation, potential energy is

produced

C ) some of the light is absorbed by the mirror, and,

by energy conservation, thermal energy is

produced

D ) none of the light is reflected, and, by energy

conservation, mass is converted to energy

71 Visible light travels more slowly through an

optically dense medium than through a vacuum

A possible explanation for this could be that the light:

A) is absorbed and re-emitted by the atomic structure

of the optically dense medium

B) is absorbed and re-emitted by the nucleus of the material in the optically dense medium

C) bounces around randomly inside of the optically dense medium before emerging

D) loses amplitude as it passes through the optically dense medium

These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other

72 What is the conjugate base of the bisulfate ion

73 If the magnitude of a positive charge is tripled,

what is the ratio of the original value of the

electric field at a point to the new value of the

electric field at that same point?

A ) 1:2

B ) 1:3

C ) 1:6

D ) 1:9

74 A 7-N force and an 11-N force act on an object at

the same time Which of the following CANNOT

be the magnitude of the sum of these forces?

A ) 2 N

B ) 8 N

C ) 12 N

D ) 18 N

75 A student plans to add HCl to a solution

containing Pb(NO3)2(aq) To determine how

much Pb2+ will precipitate from solution when

the HCl is added, the student needs to know

which of the following?

The frictional force between the floor and the

block is F Which of the following expressions equals the frictional force F when the block

moves with a constant speed?

A) T B) W – T C) T sin θ D) T cos θ

77 When an element undergoes β decay, a nuclear

neutron is converted to a nuclear proton as the nucleus emits an electron What happens to the atomic number and atomic mass of an element that undergoes β decay?

A) The atomic number increases, but the atomic mass stays approximately the same

B) The atomic number stays the same, but the atomic mass decreases

C) Both the atomic number and the atomic mass decrease

D) The atomic number decreases, but the atomic mass stays approximately the same

Time: 85 minutes Questions: 78-137

There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test Each passage is followed by several questions After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question If you are not certain of an answer,

eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining

alternatives Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet

Passage I

A phenomenon such as “female fiction” does not

exist, but in the 1960s there began to appear novels

about the “female experience” by both male and

female writers It is necessary to separate these books

from anything called “female fiction,” which would

suggest that the culture bifurcates into two distinct

experiences, one male and one female That such

experiences differ, there can be no disagreement; but

that such experiences overlap, there should also be no

disagreement I concur with Elaine Showalter’s

statement:

Women writers should not be studied

as a distinct group on the assumption that

they write alike, or even display stylistic

resemblances distinctively feminine But

women do have a special literary history

susceptible to analysis, which includes

such complex considerations as the

economics of their relation to the literary

marketplace, the effects of social and

political changes in women’s status upon

individuals, and the implications of

stereotypes of the woman writer and

restrictions of her artistic autonomy

There is by now a sizable body of fiction that

focuses on female experiences or conditions, in which

women must find their way personally,

professionally, socially, in what is basically a

patriarchy This term we may define as any society in

which men control authority and determine the roles

women should or should not play

An example of the female imagination at work

comes in the following way In Jane Eyre, Bertha, the

“madwoman in the attic,” is presented as the element

that must be eliminated in order for Rochester and

Jane to complete their destiny together Imprisoned in

the upper reaches of Thornfield, she is a threat to

an object, living out others’ sense of her experience, not her own, and becoming mad as the sole way of breaking through an unyielding situation In this view, Bertha’s plight is more archetypically female than Jane’s, by far, since Jane is moving in a fairy tale of sorts in which elements yield to her, whereas Bertha has moved in the real world of power There is, I feel,

no male novelist who could have picked up the thread

of Bertha’s existence and turned it into an emblem, as Jean Rhys did; and here alone we note the way the female novelist can perceive aspects of experience that remain (at least in our era) outside the reach of the male writer Reading back from Rhys, we

experience Jane Eyre differently

More recently, Virginia Woolf has become a powerful influence in analyses of the female experience by U.S writers Not only her fiction and

literary essays but a book such as A Room of One’s

Own (1929) have served to reinforce what many

women writers were already saying Woolf offered, also, something of an aesthetic, in that she asserted women had to develop a prose of their own After mentioning Newman, Sterne, Dickens, Thackeray, among others, she says: “The weight, the pace, the stride of a man’s mind are too unlike her own.” She quotes a typical early-nineteenth-century sentence and adds: “That was a man’s sentence; behind it one can see Johnson, Gibbon, and the rest It was unsuited for

a woman’s use.” She sums up: “There is no reason to think that the form of the epic or of the poetic play suits a woman any more than the sentence suits her But all the older forms of literature were hardened and set by the time she became a writer The novel alone was young enough to be soft in her hands.”

78 The passage discussion of male and female

experience assumes that:

A) female experience is entirely different from male experience

79 According to the author, a characteristic of many

novels of female experience is that they:

A ) portray women struggling to achieve identity in a

patriarchy

B ) display a distinctively feminine prose style

C ) present female characters from a male point of

view

D ) portray female characters as emblems

80 The author asserts that the novelist Jean Rhys:

A ) reworked the character of Bertha in a way no

male writer could have

B ) created a new literary form based on adaptations

of older works

C ) created a distinctively feminine prose style that is

difficult for male writers to imitate

D ) misunderstood Brontë’s novel Jane Eyre.

81 The author suggests that Bertha’s imprisonment

in the upper reaches of Thornfield:

82 According to the passage, Virginia Woolf

believed the novel was more suitable to women writers than was the epic or the poetic play because the:

A) novel was a more recent and thus more flexible genre

B) novel did not depend on “a man’s sentence” for its effect

C) epic and poetic play were newer genres

D) epic and poetic play required that women develop

a prose of their own

Passage II

What makes clouds turn into rain? More

specifically, the question is: How do the tiny droplets

of a cloud coalesce into water drops big enough to fall

as rain?

The beam of a searchlight pointed upward at night

shows that even apparently clear air is actually a

“soup” of particles The air may contain anywhere

from 10,000 to 100,000 particles per cubic inch

When the relative humidity is high, water vapor

condenses on many particles and begins to form

droplets; this condensation accounts for the haziness

of the air on a muggy day and for the poor visibility

you may have noticed while flying in an airplane

below a cloud An actual cloud materializes when the

humidity reaches a certain critical value which turns

most of the dust particles into water droplets Under

the right conditions, the cloud droplets combine

rapidly into raindrops; a concentration of 10,000

cloud droplets per cubic inch yields one raindrop per

10 cubic inches There are two general theories about

the way this takes place

One is the ice-crystal theory In the cold upper

regions of a high cloud, the droplets are supercooled

If ice crystals are present, they evaporate the droplets

and then absorb the vapor, much as crystals of

calcium chloride and other drying agents absorb

moisture The ice crystals, feeding on the cloud

droplets, may grow to a large size and either fall as

snow or melt into rain But rain can fall from warm

clouds as well as cold How is it generated in clouds

that lack ice crystals and supercooled droplets?

We must find some other mechanism that can

combine droplets into big drops, bringing us to the

second theory, which suggests that large particles

grow into raindrops by sweeping up the smaller

droplets The big particles form comparatively large

cloud droplets, which, as they move through the

We are therefore led to two interesting questions: What are the giant nuclei, and where do they come from? First, there can be no doubt that winds blowing over the oceans pick up a substantial load of salt particles Second, it is equally plain that the winds transport a great deal of salt from the sea over the land Systematic surveys have verified that salt particles, large and small, are spread through the atmosphere, from the ground up into high altitudes Next, there is statistical evidence of a relationship between the amount of salt carried inland from the sea and the amount of salt in our rainfall Salt greedily takes up water from the air, as anyone who has dealt with a salt shaker on a humid morning is well aware

A salt crystal kept in damp air collects enough water

to dissolve completely into a droplet All of this certainly seems to indicate that salt particles act as nuclei to produce raindrops and precipitation The idea gains further support from the finding that the number of drops per unit volume in rain over the sea

is about the same as the number of salt particles in ocean air

83 In order for the process described in paragraph

3 to occur, the temperature of ice crystals in a cloud must be higher than that of:

A) calcium chloride crystals

B) the upper regions of the cloud

C) the lower regions of the cloud

D) the supercooled droplets

84 According to the passage, a cloud is formed

when:

A) water vapor condenses on a dust particle

B) ice crystals absorb vapor from supercooled droplets

C) humidity turns a large number of dust particles

85 On the sole basis of the passage, one could

conclude that it might be possible to reduce the

rainfall in a region by:

A ) warming the clouds

B ) decreasing the number of particles in the air

C ) cooling the clouds

D ) increasing the amount of salt in the clouds

86 The passage assertion that salt is largely

responsible for rainfall from warm clouds is

based on evidence that:

I salt particles are spread throughout the

atmosphere

II the amount of salt in rainfall is related to

the amount of salt carried inland from the

sea

III the number of drops per unit volume in

rain over the sea is similar to that of salt

particles in ocean air

A ) III only

B ) I and III only

C ) II and III only

D ) I, II, and III

87 Which of the following statements most strongly

challenges the author’s assertions about the way

raindrops are formed in clouds at subfreezing temperatures?

A) Humidity in a region must be extremely high in order to turn most of its dust particles to water droplets

B) A concentration of 10,000 cloud droplets per cubic inch yields one raindrop per 100 cubic inches

C) No ice crystals are present in the upper regions of clouds at high altitudes

D) Calcium chloride crystals do not absorb as much moisture as do ice crystals

88 Assume that a particular inland region in a warm

climate receives a great deal of rain Given the information in the passage, which of the following proposed explanations of this phenomenon is the LEAST plausible?

A) There is very little wind over the region

B) There is an especially high percentage of salt particles in the region’s atmosphere

C) The region is located near an ocean

D) There is an especially high percentage of large particles in the clouds over the region

Passage III

One of the first to speak of the specifically

American character was J Hector St John de

Crèvecoeur, a French settler who published his

Letters from an American Farmer in 1782 He set the

tone for many future discussions when he observed

that Americans tended to act with far greater personal

initiative and self-reliance than Europeans and that

they tended to be unimpressed by social rank or long

usage

Schooled by the philosophes of the

eighteenth-century French Enlightenment, Crèvecoeur had no

difficulty appraising the typical American as a kind of

“new man,” an emancipated, enlightened individual

confidently directing energies toward the

environment, both natural and social, aiming to wring

from it a comfortable happiness Crèvecoeur wrote of

the American that: “Here the rewards of his industry

follow with equal steps the progress of his labour; his

labour is founded on the basis of nature, self-interest;

can it want a stronger allurement?” The rational,

self-interested individual had emerged as Economic Being

and, as such, was conceived as living most naturally

in the conditions of a competitive market in which

trade and exchange would replace traditional ranks

and loyalties as the coordinating mechanism of social

life

But Crèvecoeur’s exclusive emphasis on this

aspect of American culture and character blinded him

to other facets He did not see what many Americans

of his generation did, that a purely economic person

would be as unsuited to a self-governing society as

would the rank-bound subject of traditional regimes

Fortunately, another Frenchman, Alexis de

Tocqueville, who visited the United States in the

1830s, gave a much more adequate view

For de Tocqueville, the optimism of the

Enlightenment had been tempered by the experience

might have to teach prudent and uncertain Europeans

He added to Crèvecoeur’s earlier sketch a more penetrating and complex understanding of the new society, informed by republican convictions and a deep sensitivity to the place of religion in human life

In Democracy in America, de Tocqueville was

concerned to understand the nature of the democratic society he saw everywhere coming into existence but most fully exemplified in the United States He appreciated the commercial and entrepreneurial spirit that Crèvecoeur had emphasized but saw it as having ambiguous and problematic implications for the future of American freedom

De Tocqueville argued that while the physical circumstances of the United States had contributed to the maintenance of a democratic republic, laws had contributed more than those circumstances, and mores

(moeurs) more than the laws Indeed, he stressed

throughout the book that their mores had been the key

to the Americans’ success in establishing and maintaining a free republic and that undermining American mores was the most certain road to undermining the free institutions of the United States

He spoke of mores somewhat loosely, defining them variously as “habits of the heart”; notions, opinions, and ideas that “shape mental habits”; and “the sum of moral and intellectual dispositions of men in society.”

89 The passage suggests that the example of an

eighteenth-century American businessperson who succeeded in a competitive market but did NOT fit comfortably into a self-governing society would best support the view of:

A) Crèvecoeur

B) de Tocqueville

C) Enlightenment thinkers

D) French revolutionaries

90 According to the passage, de Tocqueville

thought that the key to America’s success as a

republic was its:

A ) laws

B ) physical circumstances

C ) competitive market economy

D ) citizens’ moral and intellectual dispositions

91 The passage suggests that de Tocqueville’s

analysis of America might have been more

accurate than Crèvecoeur’s because de

Tocqueville possessed:

A ) a conviction that Americans were purely an

“economic” people

B ) a belief in republican principles

C ) a bias in favor of rational self-interest

D ) an eighteenth-century education

92 According to passage information, which of the

following factors would be the best example of

the “mores” of which de Tocqueville speaks in

93 According to the passage, the optimism of French

Enlightenment scholars was called into question

by:

I the economic development of Americans

II the French Revolution and its aftermath

III conditions in English mill towns

A ) I and II only

B ) I and III only

C ) II and III only

D ) I, II, and III

94 On the basis of the passage, a comparison of

Crèvecoeur’s and de Tocqueville’s views of America might reasonably lead to the conclusion that:

A) both Crèvecoeur and de Tocqueville were pessimistic about America’s future

B) de Tocqueville was somewhat more pessimistic than Crèvecoeur about America’s future

C) Crèvecoeur was somewhat more pessimistic than

de Tocqueville about America’s future

D) both Crèvecoeur and de Tocqueville were extremely optimistic about America’s future

95 Which of the following conclusions can

justifiably be drawn from the passage?

I Crèvecoeur believed that economic advancement was linked to individual self-interest

II De Tocqueville believed that undermining American mores would threaten the country’s free institutions

III Crèvecoeur and de Tocqueville both predicted a swift demise for the American experiment

A) I onlyB) II onlyC) I and II onlyD) II and III only

Passage IV

Epigraphers are frequently asked the percentage

of the Mayan glyphs that have been deciphered The

question itself is ill-defined Often epigraphers have a

good idea of a glyph’s meaning; they can say

something like “This glyph means birth.” But the

ultimate goal of decipherment is to be able to

understand the glyphs as the Maya did Limited

though the carved inscriptions may be, epigraphers

have wrung from them knowledge that immeasurably

deepens, even revolutionizes, our grasp of the Classic

Maya Perhaps most important, the glyphs appear to

lay to rest for good the notion of a peaceful,

contemplative civilization

On the evidence, the Maya were every bit as

bloody and warlike as the Aztecs Their rulers

validated their reigns and celebrated the completion

of time cycles through ritual bloodletting Graphic

depictions of these gruesome rites appear on

monuments that were known by the nineteenth

century, but Mayanists, influenced by the

conventional wisdom, resisted their implications The

Maya apparently never confederated; they always

lived in feuding city-states, and their stelae repeatedly

celebrate the victories of one over another At least

until the last century and a half before the collapse of

their empire, warfare was a highly stylized business

On a number of important matters, the

inscriptions shed no light They tell us nothing

whatsoever about the Mayan economy and trade,

subjects that linger in a lacuna of ignorance On the

other hand, decipherment has begun to penetrate

some of the more sophisticated corners of ancient

Mayan thought In a landmark 1989 paper, Stuart and

Houston demonstrated that an oft-occurring glyph,

catalogued as T539, was pronounced way and alluded

to the Meso-American notion of a “co-essence,” an

animal or celestial phenomenon that was believed to

share in the consciousness of the person who

For the foreseeable future, epigraphers are unlikely to run out of mysteries to ponder The causes

of the late-Classic collapse—a calamity as sudden and

as far-reaching as the fall of Rome—remain an enigma Because monument carving ceased, as far as

we know, after a.d 909, we may never have a revealing record of that Meso-American apocalypse

“I’ll tell you what they were worried about,”

epigrapher Linda Schele says “They were worried about war at the end Ecological disasters, too

Deforestation Starvation I think the population rose

to the limit the technology could bear They were so close to the edge, if anything went wrong, it was all over.”

One of the burning questions at the moment is the extent to which writing systems other than the Mayan developed in the New World Maya was long

considered the only true writing system developed in the Americas Now we know that another written language, perhaps belonging to the Olmec people, developed more or less independently The La Mojarra (Olmec) language may have fewer signs than Maya and may thus represent an even more phonetic, less logographic system

96 According to the passage, the reason the La

Mojarra writing system is thought to have been more phonetic than the Mayan system is that: A) fewer glyphs were used in the La Mojarra writing system

B) the Mayan writing system was less logographic.C) the La Mojarra language evolved from the Mayan language

D) fewer examples of the La Mojarra writing system exist

97 Is Schele’s interpretation of Mayan concerns

directly supported by evidence presented in the

98 According to passage information, which of the

following factors distinguishes the Maya from

C ) The Aztec writing system was probably less

logographic and more phonetic than the Mayan

D ) The Aztecs probably used more glyphs than the

Mayans

99 According to the passage, the late-Classic Mayan

collapse probably occurred during which of the following time periods?

A) Before A.D. 700B) Between A.D. 700 and 800C) Between A.D. 800 and 900D) After A.D. 900

100 Which of the following statements, if true,

would best support the view that Mayan civilization was peaceful and contemplative, given the recent translations of Mayan glyphs discussed in the passage?

A) Mayan depictions of warfare and violent rites were purely symbolic

B) Mayan rulers maintained control of their subjects through torture

C) The late-Classic Mayan civilization was destroyed by a more warlike people

D) Mayan city-states governed local matters, but a central government ruled supreme