AAMC MCAT test 6r a

And, finally, choice D is eliminated since the third sentence of the second paragraph of the passage specifically tells us that the deviations in the orbits of comets caused by the pertu

MCAT ®

6R

Solutions

MCAT PRACTICE TEST 6R

SOLUTIONS

Edited, produced, typeset, and illustrated by

Steven A Leduc

National Director of MCAT Research, Production & Development,

The Princeton Review

Organic Chemistry Solutions

Copyright © 2003, 2002 by Princeton Review, Inc

All rights reserved

MCAT is a service mark of the Association of American Medical Colleges (AAMC)

TPR is not affiliated with Princeton University or with the AAMC

PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Passage I

1 D Which of the four compounds listed in the choices would produce a basic (alkaline) solution in a lake? Since KOH

(choice D) is a strong base, its dissolution in water would produce a basic solution, so this is the best choice Choice C,sulfuric acid, would produce an acidic solution, while neither choice A nor B would affect the pH

2 C A hydrogen bond is the intermolecular force between the partial positive charge on an H bonded to an F, O, or N atom

and the partial negative charge on an F, O, or N atom in another molecule Methane (CH4) has no F, O, or N atoms, andcarbon dioxide (CO2) has no H atoms, so if we’re asked for the pair of compounds that can form extensive networks of

hydrogen bonds with both participating, we must eliminate choices A and B (which involve methane) and choice D (which

involves carbon dioxide)

3 D Isotopes of an element differ only in the number of neutrons they contain, not the number of protons; this eliminates

choices A and B right away Carbon-12 has 6 protons and 6 neutrons, while carbon-14 has 6 protons and 8 neutrons.Therefore, these isotopes differ by 8 – 6 = 2 neutrons, choice D

4 C Since HCl is a strong acid, it will dissociate completely in solution So, if [HCl] = 0.01 M, then [H+] = 0.01 M, and

pH = –log [H+] = –log (0.01) = –log (10–2) = –(–2) = 2

5 D Here are the geometric families and shapes of the given molecule, methane, as well as those of the four choices:

H C H H H

H2S geometric family:

tetrahedral

shape:

bent

O C O

7 A Helium (choice B) is an inert gas and does not accept electrons H2 (choice C) is a stable molecule and is therefore

unlikely to accept electrons Iron (choice D) is a metal and is therefore far more likely to donate electrons (becoming a

cation) than to accept them However, sulfur (choice A) is in the oxygen family (“Like oxygen atoms ”) and has a high

Passage II

Note: The questions in this passage are on periodic trends or atomic structure The passage text is irrelevant

8 A Atomic radius generally decreases as we move down a column or across a row to the right in the periodic table The

four atoms listed as choices are all in the same row (Period 3), and sodium (choice A) is farthest to the left, so we would predict that it has the largest radius of the four.

9 D Ionization energy generally increases as we move up a column or across a row to the right in the periodic table The

four atoms listed as choices are all in the same row (Period 4), and krypton (choice D) is farthest to the right, so we wouldpredict that it has the highest ionization energy of the four Furthermore, since krypton is a noble gas, it has the particularlystable octet configuration and thus a very high ionization energy

10 C Since strontium (Sr) has atomic number 38, a (neutral) strontium atom has 38 electrons Since the total number of

protons and neutrons in strontium-90 is 90, the sum of the numbers of protons, neutrons, and electrons is 90 + 38 = 128

11 B Bromine (Br) has atomic number 35, which means that every bromine atom contains 35 protons If an isotope of

bromine has 44 neutrons, then the total number of protons and neutrons—which is the mass number—is 35 + 44 = 79

12 C Electronegativity generally increases as we move across a row to the right in the periodic table As a result, bonds

between atoms on the far left with those on the far right (excluding those in Group 18, the noble gases) tend to be highlypolar (ionic) Of the four pairs listed as choices, Ca (calcium) and I (iodine) are farthest apart—Ca is in Group 2, I inGroup 17—and would therefore be the most likely to form an ionic bond

Passage III

13 B Using distance = rate ¥ time, we get d = (3 ¥ 108 m/s) ¥ (7 ¥ 10–2 s) = 21 ¥ 106 m = 2.1 ¥ 107 m

14 D Any object moving in a circular path must feel a force that provides the centripetal force (choice D) For a satellite

orbiting the earth, it is Earth’s gravitational force that provides the necessary centripetal force Choice A is wrong because

centrifugal force is a fictitious force directed away from the center of the circle and does not keep an object moving in a

circular path Choice B can be eliminated since, for one thing, at the altitude of the GPS satellites, there is no atmosphere.And we can eliminate choice C, since the earth’s gravitational force on the satellite is much stronger than the moon’s (so itdoesn’t offset it)

15 A This is a proportion question using Newton’s Law of Gravitation, F = GMm/r2 If we increase r by a factor of 6 and

m by a factor of 4, the ratio m/r2 will change by a factor of 4/62 = 1/9, so F will decrease by a factor of 9:

46

436

19

19

16 C The passage tells us that the voltage of the Ni–Cd battery is 1.32 V Since we know V and we’re given P (the

power), we use the equation P = IV to determine the current: I = P/V = (3.96 W)/(1.32 V) = 3 A.

17 C The last sentence of the passage tells us the two frequencies that are used: f1 = 102.1 MHz and f2 = 104.9 MHz

By definition, the beat frequency is the difference between the two: fbeat = f2 – f1 = 2.8 MHz = 2.8 ¥ 106 Hz

18 D The speed of an electromagnetic wave through a medium is given by the equation v = c/n, where n is the medium’s

index of refraction The vacuum of space has n = 1, so v = c; however, through any material medium (such as atmospheric gases), n is greater than 1, so v will be less than c.

19 A We’re told in the first line of the second paragraph of the passage that the radioactive cesium source has a mass of

5 grams So, the question is, How many half-lives must elapse to get this mass down to 0.625 grams? Dividing 5 grams by

2 repeatedly until we reach 0.625 grams, we see that it takes 3 half-lives:

5 g æ1 half-lifeæææÆ 2 5 g æ2nd half-lifeææææÆ1 25 g æ3rd half-lifeææææÆ 0 625 gSince each half-life is 175 years, the time period required would be 3 ¥ (175 years) = 525 years

Passage IV

20 C The second sentence of the passage states that the “synthesis of Olestra starts with a base-catalyzed cleavage ”

(emphasis added) Of the choices given, only choice C, NaOH, is a base

21 C Since the specific heat of water is 1 cal/g∞C—or, equivalently, 1 kcal/kg∞C—the fact that the temperature of 1 kg of

water increased by 50∞C means that the energy added to the water was 50 kcal:

q=mc TD =(1 kg)ÊËÁ1 kcal◊∞ ˆ¯˜(50∞ =50

kg C C) kcal

So, if the combustion of 10 peanuts releases 50 kcal of energy, the combustion of 1 peanut would release 50/10 = 5 kcal

22 A In the last sentence of the third paragraph of the passage, we learn that “Olestra is not metabolized .” If it’s not

metabolized, it won’t contribute any dietary calories to a human consumer

23 A From the structure of glycerine shown in Figure 1 in the passage, we see that this molecule contains 3 –OH groups,

while the formula given in the question tells us that isopropyl alcohol contains just 1 –OH group Therefore, not only doesglycerine have a greater molecular weight, but it will have far more hydrogen bonds than isopropyl alcohol As a result, theboiling point of glycerine should be much higher than that of isopropyl alcohol (choices C and D are eliminated, and A is abetter choice than B) [By the way, the BP of glycerine is 290∞C, while the BP of isopropyl alcohol is just 82.5∞C.]

24 B First, eliminate choices C and D A mere 20 moles of methanol will not weigh several hundred thousand (and

certainly not more than a million) pounds! The molecular weight of methanol, CH3OH, is 12 + 3·1 + 16 + 1 = 32 g/mol.Therefore, 20 moles of CH3OH has a mass of (20 mol)(32 g/mol) = 640 g, or 0.64 kg Since the last sentence of the passagetells us that 1 kg “equals” 2.2 pounds, we find that 0.64 kg is equivalent to (0.64 kg)(2.2 lb/kg) ª (0.7)(2) = 1.4 lb

Independent Questions

25 B Electron affinity generally increases as we move to the right across a row or up within a column in the periodic table.

Of the atoms listed as choices, fluorine (choice B) is farthest to the right and highest in the periodic table, so we’d expectthat it would have the highest electron affinity (Furthermore, if F acquires an extra electron, it achieves the much-desirednoble gas (octet) configuration, so F “really wants” an extra electron; therefore, it has a high electron affinity.)

26 C The half-cell reduction reaction of copper is shown directly in the table, Cu+ + e–Æ Cu, with E∞ = +0.52 V If

copper is to be reduced, then the other metal used in the cell must be oxidized, and we must remember that to form agalvanic cell, we need the overall cell voltage to be positive The oxidation of silver has a potential of –0.80 V (the reverse

of the reduction of Ag+ given in the table), so the overall cell voltage here would be –0.28 V, and silver is eliminated from

consideration (and so choices A and D are wrong) Note that we don’t need to check lead (because it’s in both of the

remaining choices, B and C) Since the oxidation of zinc has a potential of +0.76 V (the reverse of the reduction of Zn2+

28 A Use Big Five #2, and call down the positive direction Then v0 = –v (it’s negative, because v0 is upward and we’re calling down the positive direction) and vfinal = +v, so vfinal = v0 + at becomes v = (–v) + gt, or 2v = gt, which gives t = 2v/g This means that t is inversely proportional to g So, if g is decreased by a factor of 6, then t will increase by a factor of 6.

31 B Because H2S is a weak acid (as stated in the sentence above Equation 1 in the passage), its ionization constant, Ka, is

small Since most weak acids have Ka values in the range 10–12 to 10–2, we’d certainly expect that the Ka value of H2S is inthis range as well, and thus be much less than 1 (Granted it’s small, so we could say that it’s “near zero,” but the fact that

Ka values can actually be measured and used in calculations means that we wouldn’t say that all weak acids have ionizationconstants that are negligible (i.e., near zero); we’d instead simply say that they’re very small So, A is a good choice, but B

is a better choice here.)

32 B Choices A and D are not reactions between the two compounds; instead, they show how the ions would react to form

each compound separately; these choices can therefore be eliminated Only choices B and C show the ion from one

compound reacting with the opposite ion from the other compound Choice B shows the reaction that forms “the insolubleCaCO3, which crystallize[s], encapsulating coins, sand, and decaying matter into rock-like clumps [which is what]the explorers who discovered the treasure [in the ocean near Cuba] found ,” as mentioned in the passage This is the best

choice here Choice C shows the formation of NaCl(s), which we know is soluble, especially since the passage talks about

finding treasure in the ocean, where NaCl would be dissolved into its separate ions

33 D Let’s see how the oxidation numbers of the atoms change as a result of the reaction:

34 D We learn in the second-to-last sentence of the first paragraph of the passage that tones separated by a perfect fifth

differ in frequency by a factor of 2/3 This means that the higher-frequency tone has a frequency that is 3/2 times the

lower-frequency tone when the tones are separated by a perfect fifth Since the equation given in the passage tells us that f is proportional to T1/2 (where T is the tension in the string), if we want to increase f by a factor of 3/2, then we have to increase

T by a factor of (3/2)2, which is 9/4

35 C According to the equation given in the passage, f = (T/r)1/2/(2L), we can lower f by lowering the string’s tension T,

increasing the string’s linear mass density r, or increasing the string’s length L Of the choices given, only C (using heavier

strings—that is, strings with a greater linear mass density r) corresponds to one of these options

36 D In the last paragraph, the passage states that “the best violins produce loud tones over the full frequency range of the

instrument ” (emphasis added) Each string has a characteristic fundamental frequency, so in order to produce loud tones

over the instrument’s full frequency range, we’d want the violin to have good resonance at the fundamental frequencies of

all the strings.

37 B In the second paragraph of the passage, we learn that the A string of the violin or viola has a frequency of 440 Hz,

and that “the cello is tuned one octave below the viola, which means the frequencies of the cello strings are half that of theviola strings.” So, if the A string of the viola is tuned to 440 Hz, the A string of the cello is tuned to 12(440 Hz) = 220 Hz

38 D In the second paragraph of the passage, we learn that the A string of the violin has a frequency of 440 Hz, so a list of

the four fundamental frequencies of the violin must include 440 Hz This eliminates choices A and B We also learn that

the violin’s strings are tuned with decreasing frequency to the notes E, A, D, G So, if A is 440 Hz, then E must be greater

than 440 Hz Only choice D includes a frequency higher than 440 Hz

Passage VII

39 B The atom is attached to 2 springs, each of force constant K When an atom displaced a distance x from its

equilibrium position, each spring exerts a force of magnitude K x , so the magnitude of the total force on the atom is 2K x This means that the effective spring constant for this system is 2K.

40 D Frequency (f, the number of cycles per second) and period (T, the number of seconds per cycle) are reciprocals—or

inverses—of each other

41 C The question tells us to use a “dimensional argument” to identify the correct formula for T in terms of K and M.

This means that all we need to check is that the dimensions (or units) of the two sides of the equation match The left-handside of each equation in the answer choices has units of seconds2, since the period T is measured in seconds and p is a

constant Therefore, we need to determine which right-hand side also has units of seconds2 From the equation F = K x ,

we know that the units of K are N/m, which is the same as kg/s2 So, to get s2 out of this, we need to flip K—to get s2/kg—

and then multiply by kg (mass) Therefore, the right-hand side of the equation must contain the term (1/K)·M, or M/K.

Only choice C contains this term

42 A For an oscillatory system without dissipative effects due to friction, the total mechanical energy, E, is conserved As

the oscillator moves, there is a continuous trade-off between kinetic and potential energy The kinetic energy and the

potential change individually, but their sum, E = KE + PE, remains constant (choice A) Note that momentum is constantly

changing since the speed and direction of the oscillator are constantly changing

43 D In the first line of the second paragraph of the passage, we’re given the formula for the potential energy of a spring:

PE = Kx2/2 Since there are 2 springs here, the potential energy will be Kx2/2 + Kx2/2 = Kx2 When the atom is at its

greatest distance from equilibrium—that is, when x = ±A, where A is the amplitude—there is no kinetic energy, only

potential energy Therefore, E = KE + PE = 0 + KA2 = KA2 Solving the equation E = KA2 for K, we get K = E/A2 (choice

D) We could have also answered this question by just using a dimensional argument, like in Question 41 above Since [E]

= J = N·m, and [K] = N/m, we’d need to divide N·m by m2 to get N/m That is, we’d have to divide E by A2 to get K, so

the answer must be D

44 B From the equation q = mc DT, where q is heat (energy), m is mass, c is specific heat, and DT is the temperature

change, we find that c = q/(m DT), so

[ ] [ ][ ][ ]

kg K

45 A The first sentences of the passage say, “let us assume that each atom can oscillate about its equilibrium position.

Interactions with neighboring atoms hold it in place .” Therefore, the model described is limited by this assumption,

which holds very well for solids However, we know that the particles of a monatomic gas move very freely; they are not

Passage VIII

46 B Compound 1 contains a four-membered ring, while Compound 2 contains a six-membered ring, so their structural

formulas are clearly different Also, Compound 1 contains 2 B’s, 2 P’s, 2 H’s, and 2 NR2 groups, while Compound 2contains 3 B’s, 3 P’s, 3 H’s, and 3 NR2 groups, so their molecular formulas are different, too: B2P2H2(NR2)2 vs

B3P3H3(NR2)3 However, their empirical formulas—which give the smallest whole numbers that specify the correct ratios

of the atoms—are the same: BPHNR2

47 C From the stoichiometry of Equation 1a (which we assume is balanced), the given initial amounts of reactants will

produce 0.003 mol of PH3(g) Since the volume of 1 mole of gas at STP (0∞C and 1 atm) is 22.4 L, the volume of 0.003 mol

of gas at STP will be (0.003)(22.4 L) = (3 ¥ 10–3)(22.4 L) = (3 ¥ 22.4)(10–3 L) = 67.2 mL

48 A Choices B and C are identical, so both can be eliminated Now, since a phosphorus (P) atom has 5 valence electrons,

not 7, the answer must be A, not D

49 A From the Ideal-Gas law, PV = nRT, we know that V = (nR/P)T, so a graph of V vs T should be a straight line with

slope nR/P, which is always positive (This eliminates choice D, by the way.) If the pressure P is a constant, then the slope

is proportional to n, the number of moles in the sample Both samples have a mass of 1 gram, but Compound 2 has a greater molar mass than Compound 1 (1.5 times as much, to be specific) Therefore, the value of n for the Compound-2 sample is lower than the value of n for the Compound-1 sample As a result, the V vs T graph for Compound 2 will have a smaller slope than the one shown for Compound 1, and would thus appear below the plot for Compound 1 [Note: The graph of P vs T for any ideal gas is a straight line that would intersect the T axis at a common point: –273.15 ∞C; that is, at

absolute zero (0 K) For the graphic shown with the question, the unit on the T axis is kelvins, so the lines would all intersect the T axis at the origin In either case, a line with a smaller slope must appear below a line with a greater slope.]

greater slope

smaller slope

Independent Questions

50 A The term isoelectronic means same number of electrons Because a neon atom has 10 electrons, the question is

asking for the atom or ion that doesn’t have 10 electrons The answer is A, helium (since it has only 2 electrons).

51 D The work W required to lift an object of mass m through a vertical distance h in a uniform gravitational field is given

by the expression mgh, the product of the gravitational force, mg (which we’d have to provide to lift the object) and the distance, h Therefore, W is proportional to h, which implies that if h is doubled, then so is W.

52 A By Graham’s law of effusion, we know that lighter gases diffuse faster than heavier ones Because Gas X has a

lower density than Gas Y (at, we assume, the same pressure and temperature), the molecules of Gas X must be less massivethan those of Gas Y Therefore, Gas X will diffuse faster, because it has a lower molar mass than Gas Y

53 B A catalyst has no effect on a reaction at equilibrium, so the amount of ammonia at equilibrium with a catalyst will be

the same as the amount of ammonia at equilibrium without a catalyst.

54 D A body is in translational equilibrium if the sum of the external forces on it is zero A body is in rotational

equilibrium if the sum of the external torques on it is zero (And a body is said to be simply in equilibrium if it’s in both

translational and rotational equilibrium.)

Passage IX

55 C Imagine a rocket floating in free space If its engines are ignited, causing chemical reactions that expel exhaust

gases, the rocket will accelerate in the opposite direction We can view this as a consequence of Conservation of

Momentum The system originally had zero momentum; if part of the system then moves in one direction, the other part ofthe system must move in the opposite direction so that these two oppositely-directed momenta add up to zero But we canalso view this as a result of Newton’s Third law (“to every action, there is an equal but opposite reaction”) The rocketexerts a force expelling the gases, and the gases thus exert a reaction force, in the opposite direction, on the rocket Thesame is true for a comet expelling gas as a result of sublimation of some of its frozen solids, so choice C is the best choice.Choice A can be eliminated since Newton’s First law tells us what happens in the absence of a net force; it wouldn’t account

for the production of a force Choice B can also be eliminated; Newton’s Second law will tell us how the comet will react

to any force (including the perturbing force), but it doesn’t account for the perturbing force And, finally, choice D is

eliminated since the third sentence of the second paragraph of the passage specifically tells us that the deviations in the

orbits of comets (caused by the perturbing force) are nongravitational.

56 C The passage states that the sublimation of the frozen solids in a comet’s

nucleus is caused by sunlight warming its surface As the comet orbits the sun,

only the portion of the surface facing the sun receives sunlight As a result, gases

are ejected from the side of the nucleus facing the sun, which causes the reaction

force—which acts in the direction opposite to the direction of the expelled gases—

to be exerted on the nucleus in the direction away from the sun.

57 B According to a typical phase diagram, solids can sublime only in conditions of low pressure

(specifically, below the pressure at the triple point) Therefore, choice B is best

58 A Choices B, C, and D are all false, so the answer must be A A (frozen) solid is held together by relatively strong

intermolecular forces A pile of rocks, on the other hand, would be held together only by the gravitational force, which ismuch weaker So, when the “rock pile” comet strikes the gas molecules in the atmosphere of Jupiter, the collisions will bemuch more effective at breaking up a rock-pile nucleus than they would be if the nucleus were a single solid piece (offrozen compounds)

59 B As stated in the last paragraph of the passage, “Comets become visible to the unaided eye when the coma forms

and extends into a vast, long tail of gas and dust.” We therefore eliminate choice D (While ices can reflect light, they’re in

the nucleus, which is concealed by the surrounding cloud of dust particles and gas, as stated in the second sentence of the

first paragraph of the passage.) So, how do we choose among choices A, B, and C? One way is to realize that two of these

choices mention gas, while only one mentions dust Since there can’t be two correct answers, we’d be led to eliminate the

two that mention gas, and thus select choice B Another way is to realize that diffuse gases are very poor reflectors of light

(for example, we don’t wear sunglasses because sunlight is reflecting off air molecules; we wear them to help shield oureyes from the reflection of sunlight from solids and liquids, not gases) This observation eliminates choices A and C, sochoice B is indeed the best

60 C The two models differ on the question of what the cometary nucleus is made of—is it made of rocks or is it a solid

of frozen ices? If we were able to perform a spectroscopic study of the cometary nucleus, we’d be able to determine thecomposition of the nucleus and thus decide between the two models

P

T

solid vapor

5 ¥ 10–5 M, the initial reaction quotient (or ion product, in this case) is [Pb2+][Br–]2 = (10–4)(5 ¥ 10–5)2 = 2.5 ¥ 10–13 Since

this is smaller than the Ksp of lead(II) bromide—given to be 4.6 ¥ 10–6 in the last sentence of the passage—there will be noprecipitate Choice D is the answer

63 B As given in the last sentence of the paragraph that follows Equation 2 in the passage, the molar solubility of PbI2(s)

in water is S = 1.89 ¥ 10–3 M So, in 100 mL = 0.1 L of a saturated aqueous solution of PbI2, there’ll be (0.1 L)(1.89 ¥ 10–3

M) = 1.89 ¥ 10–4 mol of dissolved lead(II) bromide Since the molecular weight of PbI2 is 207 + 2(127) = 461 g/mol, themass of PbI2 present in the saturated solution is

(461molg )( 1 89 10¥ -4 mol)ª(450 molg )(2 10¥ -4 mol)=900 10¥ -4g=0 09 g

Therefore, choice B is best

64 A Because the value of Keq (the ratio of “products to reactants” at equilibrium) for Equation 2, given to be 5 ¥ 1015,

is so large, the reaction goes essentially to completion That is, we’d say that essentially all (100%) of the reactant I–(aq)

is consumed—in this case, converted to I2(aq).

65 D As shown in the solution to Question 62 above, the expression for the Ksp of lead(II) bromide is [Pb2+][Br–]2

Passage XI

66 D The equation F = QE for the electric force on a charge Q says that if Q is positive—as it is in this experiment, since

(as stated in the second sentence of the first paragraph of the passage) “atoms are ionized by removing electrons”—then F is

in the same direction as the electric field, E In order to accelerate an object to the right, we need a force F directed to the right, and, therefore—since the objects each carry a positive charge—an electric field E that’s directed to the right.

67 C The superscript 6 in 6Li is the mass number of the atom, which, by definition, is the number of protons plus the

number of neutrons (Note that choice A can be eliminated immediately, since a glance back at the periodic table revealsthat every lithium (Li) atom contains exactly 3 protons, not 6.)

68 A From the equation given in the passage, we find thatv= 2QV M So, if V is decreased, the speed v of every ion

will decrease Since the ions are all moving slower, they’ll all require more time to reach the detector

69 C Let x be the distance from the right-hand plate to the detector and let V be the voltage between the accelerating

plates; these values are fixed The time required for an ion to travel this distance (the “flight time”) is equal to

where we’ve used the expression for v given in the solution to Question 68 above Since 3H+ and 3He+ have the same M and the same Q, the value of t will be the same for both ions.

70 D Because “Peaks 3 and 4 are the peaks for singly-ionized isotopes of lithium” (emphasis added), as stated in

the last sentence of the passage, the peaks for doubly-ionized lithium isotopes won’t include Peak 3 or Peak 4 This

observation eliminates choices A, B, and C, so the answer must be D [Alternatively, since t = x M 2QV , a greater Q

leads to a shorter flight time Therefore, doubly-ionized lithium ions will have shorter flight times than singly-ionizedlithium ions So, if Peaks 3 and 4 correspond to singly-ionized lithium, the peaks for doubly-ionized lithium will appear atshorter flight times Only Peaks 1 and 2 in Figure 2 are at shorter flight times than Peaks 3 and 4.]

71 A Peak 5 corresponds to a much greater flight time than Peak 4, which we know is the peak for singly-ionized Li.

Since t = x M 2QV , we can say that t is proportional to M , because x and V are fixed and Q is a constant here (equal to +1e) So, if t is greater for Peak 5 than for Peak 4, Peak 5 must correspond to a species with a greater mass, M, than 7Li

This eliminates choice D While choices B and C might be true (if they lead to an overall greater mass for the ion), choice A would certainly lead to a greater M, so it’s the best choice here.

Independent Questions

72 B Since HCl is a strong acid and NaOH is a strong base, the question is asking which of the substances listed as

choices would be more soluble in an acidic solution than in a basic one Bases are more soluble in acidic solution thanacids are (a consequence of Le Châtelier’s principle or the common-ion effect), so choice B—Pb(OH)2, the only base

listed—would be more soluble in 1 M HCl than in 1 M NaOH Choice D, HI (a strong acid), would be more soluble in the

NaOH solution; choice C, CaF2, has no apparent preference for either solution; and, although it has no acidic or basicproperties in water, AgCl (choice A) should be more soluble in the NaOH solution than in the HCl solution due to thecommon ion effect (Cl– from the AgCl and Cl– from the HCl)

73 C Choices A, B, and D are all false: Sounds travels faster through solids than through gases, the frequency of the

sound wave would be the same as it passes through the wall, and the wavelength of sound is longer in a solid than in a gas

(because l = v/f, and v is greater in a solid and f is the same) Therefore, the answer must be C If part of the sound energy

is reflected off the wall (and it is), there’ll be less to pass through the wall to the listener on the other side, and less energywill mean less intensity

74 B Hooke’s law can be written as DL = FL/AY If the second wire is made of the same material as the first, it has the

same Young’s modulus, Y If the same mass M is used, then F (which is Mg) is the same Therefore, DL is proportional to L/A So, if L is doubled and the radius of the wire is doubled (meaning the cross-sectional area A is quadrupled), then the

ratio L/A will change by a factor of 2/4 = 1/2; that is, DL will decrease by a factor of 2 More explicitly, we have the

FL

22

24

24

12

12

( )( )

75 B According to Faraday’s Law of Electrolysis, the amount of chemical change is proportional to the amount of

electricity that flows through the cell Therefore, the rate at which pure copper is produced in this electrolytic cell will beincreased most effectively by increasing the electrical current through the cell

76 D Consider a column of fluid We know that the fluid pressure near the base of the column is greater than near the top,

because greater depth leads to greater fluid pressure In the example described in the question, since the leg is lower thanthe arm, we’d expect the fluid pressure in the leg to be greater than in the arm

77 D The electric-circuit equation P = IV tells us that for a given P, the quantities I and V are inversely proportional So,

if the electric power P for transmission is “stepped up” to a very high voltage—that is, if V is increased—then the current, I, will decrease (eliminating choices A and B) As a result, the joule heat generated in the transmission wires, I2R, will

decrease (because I decreases), by a lot (because I is squared) For example, if V is stepped up by a factor of 100, then I

will decrease by a factor of 100, and the heat loss decreases by a factor of 1002 = 10,000 This reduction in the heat loss inthe transmission wires means more useful electrical power is transported, and choice D is best Choice C is eliminated,

since a higher voltage would actually call for more insulation around the transmission wires to prevent accidental electric

shock

VERBAL REASONING

Passage I

78 C

A: The author’s thesis or main point is that the late 19th century British Mediterranean fleet sacrificed function for

appearances, as shown by the “cult of brightwork” (line 20) The reference to doors in lines 14-17 shows that the crewscared about how well the doors were polished rather than about how well they worked

B: The fact that ammunition was often dumped overboard because firing the guns dirtied the ship (lines 61-63) supportsthe author’s thesis that the captain and crew, for the most part, cared more about the appearance of the ship than theydid about how well the ship and crew could perform

C: Yes The correct answer will be the one that least strengthens or supports the author’s main argument that the

British Mediterranean fleet in the late 1800s became obsessed with appearances and neglected practical or functional issues The author does not state or suggest that coal-loading competitions (lines 9-10) took place at the expense of more practical issues like gunnery practice or vermin control.

D: This reference in paragraph four (lines 37-40) shows that the commander’s priority was how shiny the latrines

(bathrooms) were, rather than how useful they were to the crew Thus, it does support the author’s argument aboutputting appearances above function

79 B

A: The correct answer will be the one that is best supported by both the passage and the new information in the question.The passage never discusses respect for the British sailing tradition, and so gives no support for the idea that respect fortradition would have led officers to choose sails over engines

B: Yes In the last two paragraphs, the author describes how commanders avoided using the ship’s guns because they didn’t want to get things dirty From this we can reasonably infer that given the choice between sails and engines in a hybrid ship, commanders would choose the cleanest option and avoid the use of the engines.

C: The author indicates in lines 21-24 that the sailors did in fact spend a great deal of time caring for the rigging on sailingships, and that crews competed in their handling of the sails (lines 7-8) Therefore, there is no reason to believe thatthey lacked training in that area

D: Note that this choice is the opposite of choice A In discussing the transition from sails to engines (lines 7-10 and 24), the author never indicates whether or not commanders and crews had a preference for one technology over theother

21-80 C

Item I: Yes The author describes the lack of interest in gunnery practice in order to support his argument that

commanders were obsessed with appearances Furthermore, this obsession compromised their ability to carry out the real function of a navy ship, that is, to be able to fire its guns in defense of the nation

(paragraphs five and six) Attempts to improve preparedness would then likely focus on gunnery practice, and these attempts would likely meet with opposition (lines 43-45).

Item II: Yes The author’s thesis, in general terms, is that late 19 th century British commanders in the

Mediterranean fleet emphasized appearances over function Therefore, reform attempts would likely do the reverse, and prioritize function [e.g., watertight doors (lines 14-17), rodent control (lines 40-42), and the use of the ship’s guns (lines 43-46 and 55-62)] over appearances.

Item III: The fact that the appearance of the ship [and of the admirals (line 5)] was so important does not support the

inference that ceremony was important, or problematic, as well Even if we imagine that the admirals’ visits tolocal dignitaries were ceremonial, the author does not suggest that these visits compromised the functioning ofthe ship Secondly, while the “cult of brightwork originated in the need to keep the men busy” (lines 20-21), it isthe cult—that is, the obsession with appearances—which is the problem in need of reform, not busywork itself.Finally, once you have eliminated answer choices based on passage support for items I and II, it is not possiblefor III to be correct, as there is no choice including all three numerals

81 A

A: Yes The author suggests that the splendiferous appearance of the ships represented the “majesty and power of England” (lines 2-5) This would support an explanation based on politics, that is, the political power and status

of England in the international arena Be sure to use process of elimination aggressively No other answer choice

is both relevant to and consistent with information provided in the passage.

B: According to the passage, these practices arose largely from the desire to embody the power of England, the

competitive spirit between ships and commanders, and the need the keep crews busy The reference to “Her Majesty’sships” in line 32 is not enough to suggest that the queen personally knew or cared about the “cult of brightwork,” orthat its practices were the result of direct royal commandments

C: According to the passage, the captains or commanders, not the admirals, bore most of the expense involved in keepingthe ship shiny (lines 27-33 and 47-50) The passage does state that the admiralty understood the problem caused bydirty gunsmoke and that it looked the other way when commanders avoided the problem by dumping the ammunition(lines 62-63) However, it does not indicate that the admirals themselves bore any of the costs of clean up when theguns were actually fired Finally, the fact that the admiralty required gun drills to be held four times a year (lines 51-53)indicates that they were not trying to avoid expenses attached to those drills

D: The author suggests that the British navy’s appearance of power and majesty did not reflect reality, just as the brightand shiny appearance of an individual ship hid real problems in how well that ship could function (lines 14-17 and 34-42) The lack of military or gunnery drills likely detracted from the British navy’s true military might, rather than being

an indication of its military superiority

82 A

A: Yes In answering this question, remember both the main idea of the paragraph in which the cited lines appear, and the main point of the entire passage In this paragraph, the author begins the discussion of the commanders’

obsession with the ship’s appearance Notice the wording in lines 17-19; by saying that “even the ring bolts” were

polished and fitted with little hats, the author is indicating that these measures were taken to absurd lengths.

B: The positive tone of this choice (especially the word “innovative”) is inconsistent with the critical tone of the paragraphand of the passage as a whole Furthermore, the need for a “sparkling ship” is not described as a “distinctive challenge”

to be met by the commanders, but as something that was largely created by the commanders themselves, fueled by thecompetitive spirit between them

C: This is the right answer to the wrong question That is, it is supported by the passage, but it is not the specific point theauthor makes with this particular reference It is especially tricky because the previous sentence regarding the gleamingbut no longer watertight doors does indicate how appearance may interfere with function However, there is no

indication that the polish or little hats on the bolts interfered with their function, only that these were extreme andsomewhat silly measures

D: This choice is both too positive in tone and too broad The reference to polished ring bolts is not meant to representmeticulous naval standards as a whole, but ridiculously meticulous standards in the specific area of polished and cleansurfaces

83 C

A: This choice is only partially correct The crews were in fact inadequately trained in the use of the guns (see the last twoparagraphs) However, the author gives no evidence of any expertise (beyond directing their crews in what and how topolish) on the part of officers In fact, the author indicates that their skills lay largely in social and sporting events (lines6-7 and 55-56)

B: This choice is inconsistent with the main idea of the passage The author, in particular by describing how gunnerypractice was avoided whenever possible, indicates that the navy was unprepared for battle at the turn of the century

C: Yes Gunnery lieutenants were the only ones pushing for target practice at the turn of the century (lines 53-55) Given that the crew’s ability to hit a target in battle is a major part of the function of a warship, it would be reasonable to infer that the ships’ success in World War II indicated that more target practice was held.

D: Compare this choice to choice C It is much too great a stretch to infer that British warships succeeded because theGerman ships were handicapped by the same counterproductive obsessions, given that there is no evidence regardingwhat the German navy was doing It is much more reasonable to infer that the British training methods changed in

Passage II

84 B

A: This is the right answer to the wrong question That is, it is supported by the passage (lines 26-31), but is not described

as an inherently negative thing, i.e., a drawback Compare this choice to choice B Reacting on the basis of personalfeelings may or may not be a drawback; when it is, it is because those feelings do not fully respond to reality (lines 36-38) Therefore, if A were correct, we would have two correct answers

B: Yes See lines 36-38.

C: Orientation is described as a benefit (lines 24-26 and 36-37), not as a drawback

D: The passage portrays partisanship as a long-term force that may be contravened by short-term forces (lines 39-53).Even when short-term forces strengthen partisanship (line 47), it is not because partisanship itself made voters morevulnerable to the influence of other factors

85 A

A: Yes This is a paraphrase of lines 39-41.

B: Measuring partisanship may help analysts know when short-term forces are at work (lines 39-53), but the author never suggests that it can help identify which specific short-term forces are involved.

C: This contradicts the first sentence of the passage, in which party identification is described as an “uncomplicatedmeasure.” Later in the passage, the author states that “party identification” and “partisanship” can be used

interchangeably (lines 12-14)

D: First of all, while partisanship may be related to a person’s childhood political experiences (lines 21-23), the authordoes not describe this as the basis for political analysts’ interest (lines 39-41) Secondly, this choice is too extreme to besupported by the passage even if it were relevant to the question While a person’s party identification is usually

acquired in childhood, the passage never indicates that the political climate during childhood is the only, or the most

important, factor

86 A

A: Yes The author lists “local circumstances” and “the attractiveness of the candidates” as short-term forces that may cause voters to “move away from their normal party choices” (lines 48-53) A local political scandal could make the officials involved less attractive to voters in their own party.

B: There is no mention of political action committees or anything analogous to them in the author’s discussion of term forces that may work against partisanship

short-C: The author suggests that a voter’s family may help form his or her long-term party identification (lines 21-24) He doesnot go on to suggest, however, that family members’ opinions would cause a voter to go against that party identity later

B: The author never discusses level of interest as a factor in unexpected electoral results

C: Yes The author lists “attractiveness of the candidates” as one factor that could cause people to vote against their party identification (lines 48-50), and so that could lead to an unexpected electoral result (lines 60-62) Note the similarity in theme to Question 86, answer choice A.

D: The passage indicates just the opposite If domestic issues could affect the outcome of an election by spurring people to

vote outside of their party (lines 50-53), the lack of any pressing domestic issues would leave voters with their

long-standing preference, all other things being equal

C: The passage indicates just the opposite in lines 26-34.

D: The passage indicates that people with a particular party identification, rather than those with no party identification,will tend to respond most favorably to ads that are from that party, or in that party’s interest (lines 26-34)

C: No comparison is made on this basis If anything, we would expect those without a long-standing party identity to bemore, not less likely to make political decisions on the basis of short-term factors

D: This choice contradicts the main idea of the passage, which is in part that party identification, when it exists, exerts apowerful influence over voters’ political decision-making If independents acted just like partisans, it would underminethe author’s argument

90 D

A: Notice the word “determined” in the question Measuring the political predispositions of all voters is only one part ofthe process of measuring the effect of short-term forces (lines 55-62)

B: Those views may relate to short-term forces at work in an election (lines 48-53), but measuring the views alone

wouldn’t tell us the effect those views had on the election

C: As in choice B, the state of the economy may affect the election results, but measuring the state of the economy aloneisn’t enough to tell us how big that effect was, according to the passage

D: Yes In lines 60-62, the author states that the “departure from the expected [partisan] vote” indicates how much

of an effect short-term forces had.

Passage III

91 A

A: Yes According to the passage, creationists see perfection as evidence of the work of a “divine architect” (lines 46) Therefore, they would dislike the idea of rudimentary or useless biological structures, which would not provide good evidence for a “perfect original creator.”

41-B: Creationists would like, not dislike, nonadaptive structures Adaptation involves evolution or change over time inaccordance with environmental pressures (lines 29-32) According to the author, creationists reject the idea of

evolution, and so would be pleased by evidence of structures that have not changed to better fit with the environment(lines 41-46)

C: As in choice B, this is the opposite of the correct answer Creationists, according to the author, believe that biologicalstructures have not changed since their moment of divine creation (lines 41-46) Therefore the idea of changelessstructures would please, not displease creationists

92 B

A: While the teeth may have served this function for the whale’s ancestors (lines 58-59), the author states that in themodern whale the teeth are useless and are resorbed (reabsorbed) at some point in time (lines 55-60)

B: Yes See lines 55-57.

C: The temporary appearance of the teeth, as useless remnants from the past, is given as evidence of evolution that hasalready taken place, not of an ongoing evolutionary process (lines 47-60)

D: These whales use a whalebone filter to eat, while the useless teeth are reabsorbed (lines 55-60) Teeth and filter areportrayed as separate, distinct structures

93 D

A: Make sure to read each word of the question carefully Vestigial structures were once useful, but are now rudimentary

and useless (lines 47-51 and 61-68)

B: Adaptation occurs, according to the passage, when organisms evolve over time to better fit into their environment (lines29-32) Vestigial structures, or features of an organism that are no longer functional, were once well adapted, that is,

useful to the organism (lines 9-11 and 49-60) Thus we can infer that they are nonadaptive now, not in the past As in

choice A, be sure to pay close attention to the time reference (“once”) in the question

C: The passage suggests just the opposite Vestigial structures are remnants of anatomical parts that once performed afunction, but that are no longer useful Thus they were mutable or changeable

D: Yes The author and Darwin suggest that vestigial structures, as in the example of whale teeth described in lines 55-60, are leftover parts or useless versions of things that once performed a function but no longer do Note also the words “become useless” in line 11 To become useless, an organ must once have been useful or functional.

94 C

A: The author discusses the history of this word not to support a more general claim about language, but as an analogyused to support his argument about biological evolution The question asks not only what choice is supported by the

passage, but also what particular claim the discussion of linguistic change is primarily intended to support.

B: The author does not make this claim In fact, it is inconsistent with the author’s discussion of the value of historicalstudy to science (see in particular lines 13-20)

C: Yes Here and in paragraph five the author uses the analogy of linguistic evolution to support his argument that vestigial biological structures must have had some function in the distant past This argument becomes more clear in the second paragraph, which continues the same theme (lines 13-20) If an argument made in one paragraph continues on through other paragraphs, it may be useful or even necessary to look elsewhere in the passage for the answer to a line reference question.

D: The author does in fact make this point (lines 9-12 and 52-55) However, changes in the meaning and pronunciation of

the word “emolument” are mentioned not primarily to support a claim about language, but to support, by analogy, the

author’s discussion of biological evolution Noticing the word “primarily” in the question is the key to avoiding this

“right answer, wrong question” trap

D: Yes The author states that Darwin looked to imperfection for evidence of evolution, as examples of perfection could be used to support either evolution or creationism (lines 35-46).

96 C

A: The passage, following Darwin, suggests that vestigial structures (anatomical features that no longer serve importantfunctions) provide the strongest evidence for evolution (lines 47-51 and 55-64) The highly developed brain

exemplifies the opposite of a vestigial or rudimentary organ

B: An opposable thumb is a very useful appendage, while the best evidence for evolution, based on the passage, would bethe existence of a useless structure (lines 47-51 and 55-64)

C: Yes If tonsils can be removed without compromising the body’s function, then they, like the appendix (lines 6-8), would qualify as vestigial This would provide, according to the passage’s discussion of Darwin, evidence of human evolution (lines 47-51 and 55-64).

D: An organ upon which life depends can hardly be called vestigial or rudimentary It is to rudimentary or useless organsthat Darwin looked for evidence of evolution (lines 47-51 and 55-64)

97 B

A: Fossils would have no relevance to or impact on the author’s claim about linguistic evolution The history of language

is used to support the author’s argument about biological evolution, not the other way around

B: Yes In the second paragraph, the author suggests that no direct evidence (“observational or experimental”) of evolution exists, and so that scientists must infer from characteristics of modern organisms that evolution occurred Direct evidence in the form of fossils would significantly challenge this claim.

C: Fossilized evidence of evolution would support, not undermine the claim that the world has changed over time

D: In the context of the passage and of the last paragraph, this assertion means that the origin of vestigial structures issimply or clearly the existence of a functional equivalent of that structure in the distant past (lines 64-68) Fossilizedevidence of evolutionary processes would support, not undermine this assertion

Passage IV

98 D

A: Notice the word “normally” in the question While the typical Oedipal path does lead a son to defy his father (lines 30), it also leads the son to leave his mother and to marry a woman similar to her (lines 34-36) Victor Frankenstein,who according to the author does not fit the typical Oedipal model, identifies with his mother instead of relinquishingher (lines 63-67) Note the first line of the third paragraph, and the word “but” that begins the fourth paragraph It isHomans, not the author who claims that Victor follows a typical developmental path

29-B: This is the path taken by Victor, who according to the passage reverses the normal Oedipal model He leaves thesymbolic or public realm in favor of a private, imaginary world represented by his mother’s “body” (lines 2-5 and 50-53)

C: While “patriarchal marriage” is mentioned in line 12, the author never presents patriarchy and matriarchy (matriarchy isnever mentioned or described) as two systems between which young men must choose This choice takes a word fromthe passage out of context

D: Yes This is a paraphrase of lines 34-36.

100 B

A: The author suggests just the opposite Victor’s father prohibited Victor from pursuing “outmoded, erroneous,

semimagical science” (lines 27-29), not modern, mainstream scientific thought Secondly, there is no indication thatVictor’s father held any religious beliefs, or that he would reject “irreligious” scientific ideas

B: Yes The author describes Alphonse Frankenstein (the father) as a representative of, and believer in, the public

or social order (lines 5-13) When Victor pursues his unauthorized studies, he goes against the accepted beliefs and values of that order (lines 23-29 and 60-63).

C: While the passage mentions that Victor was imprisoned (lines 10-11), it does not indicate that his father feared orforesaw this possibility Nor does the passage indicate that Victor’s investigations were actually illegal (or that hisinvestigations were the cause of his imprisonment), only that they were “forbidden” in terms of what was consideredacceptable by society

D: While the author of the passage discusses sexuality in her interpretation of the novel, she does not suggest that thecharacters in the novel themselves saw Victor’s actions and beliefs in a sexual light Furthermore, Victor’s mother wasdead by the time he entered the university (lines 58-59)

101 A

A: Yes The correct answer will be the statement most inconsistent with the passage The author argues that Victor’s rejection of Elizabeth and his “pursuit” of the monster (in an attempt both to be his mother and to recreate her) indicate that he is breaking with the “normal” public or social realm and is failing to follow the typical Oedipal path (lines 42-53) If Victor instead took the typical step of marrying the “acceptable” mother-substitute

Elizabeth, he would stay in that regard within the public realm and follow the “normative” or standard Oedipal path (lines 34-36).

B: The author argues that Victor identifies with his mother, and that through creating the monster he attempts to remainwith his mother (lines 63-67) If he had nursed his real mother into old age, this would be entirely consistent with theauthor’s thesis

C: The author’s analysis is based on her interpretation of Victor’s desires and motivations If Victor failed to bring themonster to life, that is, failed to fulfill his desire, it would have no effect on that analysis

D: The gender of the monster is irrelevant; in fact, the passage never indicates whether the monster in the novel is male orfemale If Victor married the monster, it would be entirely consistent with the author’s claim that by choosing it overElizabeth, the “authorized “ (line 42) or socially acceptable mother-substitute, Victor is leaving behind the public realmfor his own isolated imaginary world (lines 46-53)

102 B

A: It is unclear from the question whether this refers to the novel’s or the passage’s intended readers Regardless, thepassage does not indicate for whom the novel or the passage was intended, or what those readers’ social attitudes mightbe

B: Yes While the author never directly states that Victor’s Oedipal desires are unconscious, throughout the passage she discusses what the characters’ beliefs and actions represent, rather than simply describing those beliefs and actions This indicates that we are not to take what the characters do or say at face value, but that we should look beneath or beyond their conscious intent Furthermore, the contrast she presents between the public and private realm comes from the field of psychoanalysis (lines 1-5) As this approach plays a role in all parts of the passage, we can infer that it represents the author’s approach to other novels as well.

C: While one socio-historical context [the patriarchal society of Victor’s time (lines 11-13)] is mentioned, this does notcharacterize the author’s approach to the novel as a whole It constitutes one reference, not a framework for the author’sanalysis

D: As in choice C, this constitutes one reference in the passage (lines 67-70), not a theme that runs throughout the passage

Passage V

103 D

A: The passage presents a hierarchy in paragraph 2 based on the cost of different forms of brand placement We can inferthat the most expensive would be the most effective (as there is no reason to think that a company would pay more for aless effective method) Verbal mentions or references are on the list (line 18), but they are only moderately priced.B: Billboards would fall into the category of “simple visual exposure,” which is the least expensive form (lines 17-18),from which we can infer that it would be the least effective method

C: A close-up of the product qualifies as visual exposure, the least expensive, and so we can infer the least effective, form

of brand placement (lines 17-18)

D: Yes Character usage is the most expensive type of brand placement (line 19), from which we can infer that it is the most effective (see the explanation for choice A).

104 A

A: Yes In the second paragraph, the author describes the value or benefit of brand placement to both the

marketers and the filmmakers (lines 19-26) Later in the passage, the author defends brand placement against its critics by arguing that it does not deceive moviegoers, nor does it force them to buy the products or brands that they see in the movie (lines 73-76).

B: See the explanation for choice A The author clearly speaks as a defender of the practice, not as a neutral observer oranalyst

C: This choice is inconsistent with the tone of the passage While the critics described in the fifth paragraph could bedescribed as mistrustful, the author defends brand placement against those critics (lines 51-53 and 73-76)

D: See the explanations for choices A and C The author has a positive tone, not a disapproving attitude towards brandplacement

105 A

A: Yes This is a paraphrase of lines 7-11.

B: First of all, the author states that brand placement “offsets production costs” by providing a source of income to

filmmakers (lines 24-26), not that it directly lowers those costs Secondly, even if this choice were fully supported by

the passage, lower cost is not presented as the primary cause of why brand placement is increasing, as described in the

first paragraph

C: This is the right answer to the wrong question That is, it is stated in the passage (lines 24-26), but is not given as the

primary reason why the practice is growing.

D: While the passage states that this practice has a variety of benefits for marketers, including cost-efficiency and

increasing their access to potential consumers (lines 10-11 and 19-24), the author does not suggest that it significantlyincreases sales, nor that marketers believe that it will Furthermore, in the last two paragraphs the author suggests thatbrand placement may have no real effect (lines 53-59) or at most a limited effect (lines 65-73) on product sales

106 C

A: Notice the word “general” in the question The effect must apply to audiences as a whole, not just to one segment.While young people may get some psychological benefit from the “feelings of belonging, comfort, and security”induced by seeing familiar brands in a movie (lines 34-39), older viewers feel uncomfortable when exposed to thepractice (lines 31-34)

B: As in choice A, this applies only to one part of the audience: younger viewers (lines 34-36) Older moviegoers

experience resistance to and concern about the practice (lines 31-34)

C: Yes While younger viewers may accept the practice as legitimate (lines 34-36), the author claims that all viewers

have some resistance to the message That is, they are not necessarily persuaded to buy the product (lines 70-76).

D: This choice is too extreme even as a characterization of older viewers (lines 31-34); the author does not go so far as tosuggest that older viewers’ dislike of brand placement keeps them out of the theatres Furthermore, it is inconsistentwith the accepting and even positive reaction of younger patrons (lines 34-39)