master question-ultra sonic testing(full version)

Ultrasonic Testing Question Paper 3 – Day 3assume compression probe working in ferritic steel: a.?. One method of determining the beam angle of both shear and compression wave probes is

Ruane Technical Services Ultrasonic Testing

UTQP-001

Calculation

1 Calculate the wavelength for the following probes:

a) Longitudinal wave for a 2.5MHz in Copper

b) Longitudinal wave for a 5.0MHz in Aluminium

c) Longitudinal wave for a 1.25MHz in Copper

d) Longitudinal wave for a 2.25MHz in Aluminium

e) Transverse wave for a 5.0MHz in Aluminum

f) Transverse wave for a 1.25MHz in Mild Steel

g) Transverse wave for a 5.0MHz in Mild Steel

h) Transverse wave for a 2.0MHz in Aluminium

2 Calculate the near zone for the following probes:

a) 20mm dia 5.0MHz 0º in Aluminum

b) 10mm dia 2.5MHz 0º in Aluminum

c) 10mm dia 4.0MHz 0º in Copper

d) 15mm dia 2.5MHz 60º in Iron

e) 20mm dia 5.0MHz 45º in Cast iron

f) 20mm dia 1.25MHz 0º in Mild steel

3 Calculate the al beam angle for the following compression probes in Mild steel

Ultrasonic Testing Question Paper 1 – Day 1

b) Which crystal is the best transmittal of ultra sonic energy?

8 What thickness of Perspex is used in the IIW block and what thickness

Does it represent in steel?

b A 6dB drop represent………of its former height

UTQP-003

Ultrasonic Testing Question Paper 2 – Day 2

1 Does equipment required re-calibrating if the probe being used is changed for one

of the same type?

2 How many back echoes are required in order to calibrate the screen for operation with normal probes?

3 What is the formula for calculating the near zone?

4 Define resolution?

5 What is refraction?

6 What is diffraction?

7 State Snells Law

8 What are mode change and spurious indications?

9 What does velocity in a medium depends upon?

10 Calculate the wavelength for the following:

(velocity approx)

a Longitudinal waves for 5.0MHz in cast iron 3500 m/sec

b Longitudinal waves for 2.5 MHz in mild steel 5960 m/sec

c Longitudinal waves for 4MHz in mild steel 5960 m/sec

d Transverse waves for 5MHz in copper 2325 m/sec

e Transverse waves for 2.5MHz in mild steel 3240 m/sec

UTQP-004

Ultrasonic Testing Question Paper 3 – Day 3

(assume compression probe working in ferritic steel):

a Crystal size = 20mm , frequency = 2.5MHz

b Crystal size = 10mm , frequency = 2.5MHz

a a better resolution

b a reduced sensitivity

c greater penetration

d a shorter wavelength

a Crystal size = 10mm, frequency = 5MHz, Acoustic Velocity = 5960m/sec

b Crystal size = 20mm, frequency = 2.5MHz, Acoustic velocity = 5960 m/sec

c Crystal size = 10mm, frequency = 2MHz , Acoustic velocity = 3240m/sec

steel at a refracted angle of 35º to the normal

UTQP-005

Ultrasonic Testing Question Paper 4

Using a pen, circle the letter preceding your chosen answer (circle only one answer), i.e

A, b, c or d if you wish to change your answer, place a cross in the circle and circle your new answer

1 Which of the following apply to shear wave propagation?

a Particles vibrate to the direction of propagation

b Particles vibrate at right angles to the direction of propagation

c Particles vibrate elliptically to the direction of propagation

d Penetration is limited to one wavelength

d None of the above

4 In ultrasonic testing, the time duration of the transmitted pulse is referred to as

a The pulse length or width

b The pulse amplitude

c The pulse shape

d None of the above

5 The beam spread is a function of:

a Height and width of the probe

b Percentage elongation of the crystal

c Crystal diameter and frequency

d None of the above

6 The smallest defect detectable with a 5MHz transverse wave probe is approximately:

8 The amount of penetration of an ultrasonic wave is dependent upon:

a the probe specimen contact pressure

d There is no British standard for ultrasonic test block

10 In an ultrasonic flaw detector, the attenuator:

b deliver electrical energy to the crystal

11 What is the following material of the same alloy is most likely to produce the greatest amount of sound attenuation over a given distance?

a hand forging

b A course gain casting

c An extrusion

d The attenuation is equal in all material

12 A test method employing two separates probes on opposites surface of the material being tested is called

a contact testing

b surface wave testing

c through transmission testing

d lamb wave testing

13 25 million cycles per second can also be stated as:

a amount of the ultrasonic energy returning to the probe

b distance travel by the search unit

c elapsed time since the ultrasonic pulse was generated

d thickness of the material being tested

15 The gradual loss of sonic energy as the ultrasonic vibration travel through the material is referred to as:

a compression wave

b shear wave

c surface wave

d both a and b

17 The ability to resolve two discontinuities at different depth would be improved by:

a decreasing the frequency

b shortening the pulse duration

c increasing the pulse duration

d none of the above

18 Ultrasonic waves in test material are:

a electromagnetic waves

b low voltage electric field

c discontinuities radio waves

d mechanical vibrations

UTQP-006

Ultrasonic Testing Question Paper 5

label all major features

of technique?

technique?

technique to size a lamination

UTQP-007

MULTI-CHOICE QUESTION PAPER 1

a Lamellar tearing is a HAZ type of crack which may be associated with single V

butt welds in steel

b Fluorescent inks used in MPI always have a paraffin base

c Ultrasonic testing of welds is preferred over radiography if all the weld

discontinuities are to be detected

d Fluorescent inks and penetrants provide a higher contrast than non- fluorescent inks or penentrants

100mm quadrant, a guide strip is recommended If persistent side wall echoes appear or the echo is weak, then:

a The beam index point should be checked

b The beam angle should be checked

c The beam alignment should be checked

d All of the above

would you test?

a Over the entire surface

b Only at the toes of the welds

c At any sharp changes in contour, which will probably include the toes of the welds if they have not been blended

d Fatigue cracks cannot exist on welded assemblies

using guide strips, misalignment may be evident as a result of:

a Persistent side wall echoes

b Weaker target echo

c Both a and b

d Neither a or b

inspection on MMA welded fillet joints made of ferromagnetic materials?

a It is actually preferable to use penetrant testing

b Because the eye remaining on the component after testing may advance

corrosion if penentrants are used

c Because MPI will detect sub-surface defects

d Because incorrect assessment may be made with penentrant testing, due to the difficulty in removing all excess dye from the weld area, because of the rough contour of the weld

a Index point

b Beam angle

c Frequency

d Wavelength

a.Ultrasonic testing always utilizes Piezo electric crystals

b Magnetic particle testing is always better the penetrant testing

c.Penetrant testing is a slower NDT method than magnetic particle testing to carry out on a similar ferromagnetic component

d Magnetic particle testing is a good NDT method for locating root underbead cracks if access permits

regularly spaced:

a Could be inspected using a water gap method

b Could be inspected using a soft nose probe

c Either a or b

d Is not suitable for inspection

submerged arc seam welds, o 25 mm thick, 900 mm diameter pipes?

a Magnetic particle testing

b Penetrant testing

c Ultrasonic testing, using angle probes

d Ultrasonic testing, using compression probes

10 One method of determining the beam angle of both shear and compression wave probes is to prepare a block, made from an off-cut of the material under test,

containing side drilled holes The primary object is to determine the:

a Geometry of the beam

b Acoustics of the beam

c Both a and b

d Neither a.and b

11 What is the difference between a specification and a procedure?

a.A specification is usually more general than a procedure and may contain ‘defectacceptance tolerances’ , whereas a procedure is usually specific to a particular contract and is directly related to the type of work being carried out, e.g ultrasonic testing of welds

b A specification is specific, whereas a procedure is general

c.A specification is always a national standard, whereas a procedure is specific to

a contract

d A specification is the same document as the procedure

12 The characteristics of wave frequency and pulse length determine the result of?

a Time base linearity

b Amplitude linearity

c Beam index point

d Depth resolution

13 The abbreviation API and AWS stand for:

a.American Pipe Institute and American Welding Society

b American Petroleum Institute and American Welding Society

c.American Pipeline Institute and American Welding Specifications

d American Pipe Institute and American Welding Specifications

14 The 6 dB drop method may be used to determine the size of a large discontinuity

An alternative method used is the?

a Attenuation technique

b Equalization technique

c Wavelength measurement technique

d Frequency reduction technique

15 Which of the following defects are considered to be the most detrimental to the service life of an item?

a Porosity

b Non-equiaxed (planar) defects open to the surface

c Equiaxed (rounded) defects open to the surface

d Equiaxed defects not open to the surface

16 Which of the following British Standards relates to calibration blocks?

a BS 5996

b BS 4336

c BS 2910

d EN 12223/BS EN 27963

17 A crack exists in a weld:

a.This would be repairable

b This would result in the weld being cut out

c.This is acceptable

d Action to be taken would depend on the specification requirement

18 Another name for the reject control is the:

a Diffraction control

b Attenuator

c Suppression control

d Range control

19 40 mm of lack of root penetration exists on a single V butt weld on a 15 mm thick,

450 mm diameter pipe weld:

a.This would at least be repairable

b This would result in the weld being cut out

c.This is acceptable

d Action to be taken would depend on the specification requirements

20 How can the resolution capabilities of two compression probes be compared?

a By using a V2 (A4) calibration block

b By twisting the probe above a known hole in a calibration block

c By aiming the sound path at more than one known reflector in close proximity

d All of the above

21 Which of the following defects would be difficult to assess /detect, using a 70

degree single crystal probe on a single V butt weld on a 20 mm thick, 600 mm

diameter pipe weld?

a.Lack of root fusion

b Excessive penetration

c.Lack of root penetration

d Root underbead crack

22 A compression probe is placed on a V1 (A2) calibration block as shown in the diagram The echoes shown on the CRT, which has been calibrated 0-100 mm, would intersect the time base at:

c Polycell (wallpaper paste)

d All of the above

25 The primary duty of an ultrasonic operator is:

a To ensure a defect free weld

b To carry out all the ultrasonic testing in accordance with the specification(s) and any test procedure(s)

c To report on every discontinuity detected, regardless of any defect acceptance tolerance quoted in the specification

d All of the above

26 The thickness of a V2 (A4) calibration block is:

a 12.5 mm

b 20 mm

c 25 mm

d a or b

e may be all of the above

27 Which of the following types of crack is the most common type encountered, associated with welds on high C/C-Mn steels?

a.Sulphur induced centre line cracks

b Lamellar tearing

c.Liquidation cracks

d Hydrogen related cracks

28 If using a 20 mm thick calibration block to calibrate 0 to 100 mm across the CRT, how many back wall echoes would you have? (Assume compression probe)

a.The 0.5 mm wide slot in the V1 (A2) calibration block

b A surface breaking crack

c.An internal slag inclusion

d All the above may easily be detected with a 90 degree probe

UTQP-008

MULTI-CHOICE QUESTION PAPER 2

associated with welds on high C/C-Mn steels?

a Sulphur induced centre line cracks

b Lamellar tearing

c Liquation cracks

d Hydrogen related cracks

of the probe crystal?

a Equalization technique

b 6 dB drop technique

c Maximize the echo

d Wavelength measurement technique

probe?

a The 0.5mm wide slot in the V1 (A2) calibration block

b A surface breaking crack

c An internal slag inclusion

d All the above may easily be detected with a 90 degree probe

probe?

a Better near surface resolution

b No dead zone on the CRT

c Higher sound velocity

d a and b

a Cyclic stresses

b Corrosion

c Sudden stress above the yield point

d Sudden stress above the UTS

a The type of defect

b The orientation

c The size

d All of the above

a The distance from the root to the toe

b The distance from the toe to the face centre

c The distance from the root to the face centre

d The distance from the toe to the toe

a 5960 m/s

b 3240 m/s

c 2740 m/s

d 6400 m/s

a The distance from the root to the toe

b The distance from the toe to the face centre

c The distance from the root to the face centre

d The distance from the toe to the toe

10 Which of the following statements is true?

a The higher the probe frequency the faster the sound travels through a material

b The higher the probe frequency the slower the sound travels through a material

c The higher the probe frequency the more sound is lost due to attenuation losses

d Immersion testing requires a grease based couplant

11 What is another term of concave root?

a.Suckback

b Hollow bead

c.Lack of root penetration

d Root undercut

12 Which of the following discontinuities is not associated with forging process:

a Burst

b Lap

c Seam

d Lamination

13 Why do certain specifications require the use of water based couplant on

components to be ultrasonically tested?

a.Because of the high acoustic impedance of water

b Because of the low acoustic impedance of water

c.Because grease/oil based couplants are difficult to remove from the surface and may cause problems with adhesion if the component is to be coated for anti corrosion reasons

d No specification requires the use of water based couplants

14 An echo is set at full screen height on a CRT The gain is then reduced by 12 dB, the echo is at:

a Half full screen height

b Quarter full screen height

c A tenth full screen height

d A twelfth full screen height

15 The sensitivity of a test may be altered by:

a.Adjusting the gain/ attenuation control

b Changing the frequency

c.Changing the test specimen one type of material, to a test specimen of another type of material

d All of the above

16 To cause multiple echoes on the CRT to move to the left without changing the gap between them:

a The range control must be adjusted

b The delay control must be adjusted

c The gain control must be adjusted

d The suppression control must be adjusted

17 How many echoes would be present on the CRT if a V2(A4) block is used to calibrate a 45 degree probe from 0 to 200 mm?

a May lead to spurious indications

b May lead to an incorrect assessment of a test specimen

c Always occur when using angle probes

d All of the above

22 Explain briefly what the four components in Snell’s Law relate to?

a.Determine the resolution of a probe

b Determine the pulse width

c.Set the test sensitivity

d All of the above

24 An echo is set at full screen height on the CRT, then the sound is reduced by 12 dB:

a The echo will drop by 50% of its initial height

b The echo will drop to a ¼ full screen height

c The echo will probably disappear off the screen

d The echo will drop to ¾ full screen height

25 Which of the following probes would contain the thinnest crystal?

a.A 2½ MHz compression probe

c Both of the above are possible

d There is no hole in a V2(A4) test block

27 Which of the following statements best defines resolution?

a.The ability of an ultrasonic pulse to locate a small defect

b The ability of an ultrasonic pulse to show a small defect on the CRT

c.The ability of an ultrasonic test to show on the CRT the separate signals from two or more defects lying in close proximity

d The deviation from the normal path of the beam due to different material

d Depends on the probe frequency

29 Which of the following weld defects would be the most attenuation to an ultrasonic beam?

a.Lack of root penetration

b A root underbead crack

c.Clustered porosity

d Lack of side wall fusion

30 The relationship between wavelength frequency and velocity is:

a Wavelength = Velocity + Frequency

b Wavelength = Velocity x Frequency

c Wavelength = Velocity divided by Frequency

d Wavelength = Velocity - Frequency

UTQP-009

MULTI-CHOICE QUESTION PAPER 3

dependent upon:

a The velocity of sound in both materials

b The test frequency

c The crystal diameter

d All of the above

a 1.19m

b 119m

c 11.9m

d 1.19mm

single crystal probe, will result in:

a An increase in sound velocity

b A decrease in sound velocity

c No change in velocity

d No change in wavelength

passing through the interface:

a Decreases

b Increases

c Is not changed

d May increase or decrease

a 1 MHz, 10mm diameter crystal

b 5 MHz, 25mm diameter crystal

c 2 MHz, 25mm diameter crystal

d 5 MHz, 10mm diameter crystal

a The frequency of the crystal

b The pulse repetition rate of the test instrument

c Friction considerations

d Crystal diameter

a Multiplying the sound velocity in the material by the density of the material

b Dividing the sound velocity in the material by the test frequency

c Multiplying the material’s density by the wavelength of the ultrasound in the material

d Measuring the grain size of the material

d There is not a BS for ultrasonic test blocks

10 Which is the best NDT method?

a.Magnetic particle testing

b Radiographic testing

c.Ultrasonic testing

d It depends on many factors, NDT methods are usually complimentary

11 The ability to resolve on the CRT two discontinuities at slightly different depths in

a test piece would be improved by:

a Decreasing the frequency

b Shortening the pulse duration

c Increasing the amplitude of the initial pulse

d All of the above

12 Which of the following formulae is incorrect?

a.Full skip distance = wall thickness x tan of the probe angle

14 Through transmission testing requires:

a Access to both sides of the test specimen

b More than one crystal/transducers

c A parallel sided test specimen

d All of the above

15 When an incident ultrasonic wave impinges upon an interface of two materials with different acoustic impedance values at an angle other normal to the surface, the wave may be:

a Reflected

b Refracted

c Mode converted

d All of the above

16 Lamb waves may be used to inspect:

17 Calculate the length of the near zone for a 12 mm diameter, 2.5 MHz transducer, in

a medium with a velocity of 6000 m/s:

19 Calculate the wavelength for a frequency of 4.25 MHz at a velocity of 5.8

kilometers per second:

b B-scan

c C-scan

d D-scan

a It is possible to know the exact size of a defect in a weld by measuring the echo height

b It is possible to know the exact size of a defect in a weld by assessing the echo shape

c A small echo on the CRT may be a large significant defect

d None of the above are true

23 At an interface between two different materials, an impedance different results in:

a Reflection of the entire incident energy at the interface

b Absorption of sound

c Division of sound energy into transmitted and reflected modes

d None of the above

24 Which of the following discontinuities would produce the highest signal on CRT using the same crystal and gain?

a An echo amplitude comparable in magnitude to the back surface reflection

b A complete loss of back surface reflection

c An echo amplitude larger in magnitude than the back surface reflection

d All of the above

26 Sizing of plate defects may be carried out in accordance with which British

27 Compensation for the variation in echo height related to variations in discontinuity depth in the test material is known as:

29 Sound attenuation in a material is due to:

a.Absorption and scattering

b Reflection and refraction

c.Density and velocity

d Density and elasticity

30 A frequency of 500 000 cycles per second is equal to:

a 500 KHz

b 500 Hz

c 5 MHz

d 50 KHz

UTQP-010

MULTI-CHOICE QUESTION PAPER 4

a Electron deflection

b Grain-boundary movement

c Disorientation of crystal domains

d The atomic oscillations reaching their resonant frequency

shall be used to compensate This technique is called the:

a Transfer loss technique

b Compensation technique

c Through transmission technique

d None of the above

a Grain boundary scattering

b Scattering by inclusions

c Absorption due to internal atomic friction

d All the above

a Half of maximum screen height above base line

b Three-quarters of maximum screen height above base line

c Full screen height above base line

d Any of the above

a Increased beam spread

b Increased penetration

c Shorter wavelength

d None of the above

6 Test instruments controls should be adjusted to position the front back wall echo of the thickness to be tested?

a Half way along the time base line

b Two-thirds of the distance along the time base line

c Full distance along the base line

d Any of the above

a Efficient crystal damping

b Using a high frequency supply

c Using the suppression control on the flaw detector

d None of the above

a As cast condition

b Blasted or ground condition

c Machined condition

d All of the above

11 The effect of suppression on the amplifier will:

a.Destroy amplifier linearity

b Destroy time vase linearity

c.Cause all signals to reach the same amplitude

d All of the above

12 Test sensitivity shall be established by the use of :

a.Particle oscillation perpendicular to the direction of propagation

b Particle oscillation parallel to the direction of propagation

c.Both a and b

d Particle displacement inversely proportional to the square of the distance

16 Refraction takes place when a sound beam passes from one medium into another at

an angle when there is a:

a Change in a surface condition

b Change in velocity

c Change in frequency

d Change in grain structure

17 The minimum refracted angle for shear waves in steel which is of practical use in ultrasonic is:

a.27.6 degrees

b 28.5 degrees

c.40 degrees

d 35 degrees

18 Which of the following is a reference reflector that is not dependent on beam angle?

a A flat bottomed hole

b A vee notch

c A side drilled hole which is parallel to the plate surface and perpendicular to thesound patch

d A disc shaped laminar reflector

19 The calibrated attenuator control in an ultrasonic flaw detector circuit is positioned between:

a.The amplifier and the X plates

b The pulse generator and the Y plates

c.The suppressor and the X plates

d The amplifier and the Y plates

20 A short burst of alternating electrical energy is called:

b A flaw which is not normal to the beam

c.A near surface detect cannot be resolved from the main beam(initial pulse)

d All of the above

22 The scattering of the rays of an ultrasonic beam due to reflection from a highly irregular surface is called:

a Angulation

b Dispersion

c Refraction

d Rarefaction

23 When adjusting the flaw locating rule for a shear wave weld inspection, the zero point on the rule must coincide with the:

a Sound beam exit point of the wedge

b Point directly over the flaw

c Wheel search unit

d Circular scanner

24 The angle formed by an ultrasonic wave as it enters a medium of different density from the one which it came and a line drawn perpendicular to the in interface between the two media is called:

a The angle of incidence

b The angle of reflection

c The angle of refraction

d The angle of rarefaction

25 Which best describes a typical display of a crack major surface is perpendicular to the ultrasonic beam?

a.A broad indication

b A sharp indication

c.The indication will not show due to improper orientation

d A broad indication with high amplitude

26 Compute the wavelength of ultrasonic energy in perspex at 5MHz?

a 0.52 mm

b 5.2 mm

c 52.0 mm

d 520.0 mm

27 A primary purpose of a reference standard is:

a.To provide a guide for adjusting instrument controls to reveal discontinuities that are considered harmful to the end use of the product

b To give the technician a tool for determining exact discontinuity size

c.To provide assurance that all discontinuities smaller than a certain specified reference reflector are capable of being detected by the test

d To provide a standard reflector which exactly simulates natural discontinuities

of a critical size

28 To obtain surface waves only in a part the incident angle must lay:

a Below the first critical angle

b Between the first and second critical

c At the second critical angle

d Above the second critical

29 Compensation for the variation in echo height related to variations in discontinuity depth in the test material is known as:

a Transfer

b Attenuation

c Distance amplitude

d Interpretation

30 To obtain shear waves only in part, the incident angle must lay:

a Below the first critical angle

b Between the first and second critical angle

c At the second critical angle

d Above the second angle

UTQP-011

MULTI-CHOICE QUESTION PAPER 5

which is small in amplitude compared to the loss in amplitude of back reflection The orientation of this discontinuity is probably:

a Parallel to the test surface

b Parallel + or – 5 degrees from the test surface

c Parallel to the sound beam

d Such that complete loss of back reflection will result

distances from a transducer may be caused by:

a Material attenuation

b Beam divergence

c Near field effects

d All of the above

the sound beam The indication from such a discontinuity will be:

a Large in proportion to the length of the discontinuity

b Small in proportion to the length of the discontinuity

c Representative of the length of the discontinuity

d Such that complete loss of back reflection will result

a Decrease or loss of back surface reflection

b Large grass or noise indications

c Decrease in penetration

d All of the above

a Rolling

b Machining

c Casting

d Welding

of the CRT in an A-scan ultrasonic set up?

a Sweep generator

b Pulser

c Amplifier circuit

d Clock timer

diminish exponentially as the distance increase:

a Far field zone

b Near field zone

c Dead zone

d Fresnel zone

material behind the piezo electric element in a transducer?

a The backing material absorbs ultrasonic energy emitted from the back surface of the crystal

b The backing material provides for the proper amount of crystal damping

c The backing material converts the returning impulses into electrical signals

d The backing material maintains proper alignment of the crystal

sound propagation may be indicated by:

a An echo amplitude comparable in magnitude to the back surface reflection

b A complete loss of back surface reflection

c An echo amplitude larger in magnitude than the back surface reflection

d All of the above

10 As transducer diameter decreases – the beam spread?

a.Decreases

b Remains the same

c.Increases

d Becomes conical in shape

11 An amplitude type gate is necessary for all:

a Shear wave examinations

b Longitudinal wave examination

c Automatic examinations

d Manual examination

12 When testing a sample using an angle beam method, increasing the incident angle until the second critical angle is reached results in:

a.Total reflection of a surface wave

b A 45 degree refraction of a shear wave

c.Production of a surface wave

d None of the above

13 When a C-scan recording is used to produce a permanent record of an ultrasonic test, the information displayed is typically the:

a Discontinuity depth and size

b Discontinuity depth, orientation and size

c Discontinuity location and depth

d Discontinuity location and size (plan view)

14 The acoustic impedance of a material is used to:

a.Determine the angle of refraction at an interface

b Determine the attenuation within a material

c.Determine the relative amounts of sound energy coupled through and reflected

at an interface

d Determine the beam spread within a material

15 Rough entry surface conditions can result in:

a A loss of echo amplitude from discontinuities

b An increase in the width of the front surface echo

c Both a and b

d None of the above

16 A transverse wave mode will not travel through:

b The attenuation

c The acoustic impedance

d The angle of refraction

18 The length of the near zone is NOT dependant upon which of the following:a.The diameter of the transducer

b The frequency of the transducer

c.The velocity of sound in the test material

d The relative acoustic impedance of the coupling medium

19 In straight beam pulse echo testing, a discontinuity with a rough reflecting surfaceperpendicular to the incident wave will have what effect on the detected signal in comparison to a smooth flat bottom hole in the same size?

a Increases it

b Decreases it

c Have no effect on it

d Decrease the width of the pulse of it

20 Division of sound energy into transmitted and reflected modes is as a result of:a.Acoustic impedance differences between two materials

b Lack of Couplant

c.Excess of Couplant

d None of the above

21 Ultrasonic vibrations can be propagated only in the longitudinal mode in which ofthe following media:

a Machine oil

b Aluminum

c Ice

d Beryllium

22 At an interface between two different materials, impedance results in:

a.Division of sound energy into transmitted and reflected modes

b Reflection of the entire incident energy at the interface

c.Absorption of the sound energy

d None of the above

23 If the velocity of a longitudinal mode wave in a given homogeneous material is 0.625 cm/n sec at ½ inch below the surface, what is the velocity at 2 inches below the surface:

a ¼ the velocity at ½ inch

b ½ the velocity at ½ inch

c The same as the velocity at ½ inch

d None of the above

24 In an A-scan presentation, the horizontal base line represents the:

a.Amount of reflected ultrasonic sound energy

b Distance traveled by the search unit

c.Elapsed time or distance

d None of the above

25 If a 5.0 MHz transducer is substituted for a 2.25 MHz transducer, what would bethe effect on the wavelength o a longitudinal mode wave produced in the test specimen?

a The wavelength would be longer

b The wavelength would remain constant

c The wavelength would be shorter

d The wavelength would vary directly with the acoustic impedance

26 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of longitudinal waves?

a Highest velocity

b Longest wavelength

c Best penetration at any one frequency

d Particle motion is perpendicular to wave propagation

27 What can cause non-relevant indications on the cathode ray tube?

a Contoured surfaces

b Edge effects

c Surface conditions

d All of the above

28 Carrying out a contact ultrasonic testing method, using a shear wave probe with a Perspex wedge, what would be the incident angle required producing a 45 degree beam angle in brass?

(Longitudinal velocity in perspex 2730 metres/sec)

(Longitudinal velocity in brass 4400 metres/sec)

(Shear velocity in brass is 2200 metres/sec)

(Shear velocity in perspex is 2200 metres/sec)

a Approximately 27 degrees

b Approximately 61 degrees

c Approximately 26 degrees

d Approximately 59 degrees

29 The proper interpretation and evaluation of the presented defects signals are

essential to any on-destructive test A common method for the estimation of defect size is the use of a:

a Double transducer test

b Piezo electric standard

c Mode conversion

d Reference standard

30 If a contact angle beam produces a 45 degree shear wave in steel – what would be the angle in aluminum?

(Longitudinal velocity in steel is 5960 metres/sec)

(Shear velocity in steel is 3230 metres/sec)

(Shear velocity in aluminum is 3100 metres/sec)

(Longitudinal velocity in Perspex is 1430 metres/sec)

(Longitudinal velocity in perspex 2730 metres/sec)

UTQP-012

MULTI-CHOICE QUESTION PAPER 6

a Test display characteristic

b Test material characteristic

c Transducer characteristic

d Form of testing

medium with a velocity of 6000 m/s:

a 15.0 mm

b 1.25 mm

c 12.5 mm

d 1.5 mm

observed for a flat defect or similar orientation perpendicular to the sound beams:

a Identical

b Increased