B1+ Pre-First for Schools Preparing students for the Cambridge English Qualifi cations across eight levels: A1 Pre-Key for Schools A2 Key for Schools A2+ Pre-Preliminary for Schools B1
Trang 1TEACHER’S RESOURCE BOOK 2ND EDITION B1+ Pre-First
Engage and motivate students to build the language and skills they need in
the classroom, exams and their lives beyond school Educate students about the
world around, and allow them to bring their own experience into learning English.
B1+ Pre-First for Schools
Preparing students for the Cambridge English Qualifi cations across eight levels:
A1 Pre-Key for Schools A2 Key for Schools A2+ Pre-Preliminary for Schools B1 Preliminary for Schools B1+ Pre-First for Schools B2 First for Schools B2+ Pre-Advanced C1 Advanced
Other components
• Student’s Book: thorough language skills and
exam preparation, presented through fun and thought-provoking contexts
• Student’s App: access to audio and video, plus
extra vocabulary practice
• Workbook: practice of grammar, vocabulary
and all skills, plus vocabulary extension work
• Online Practice: Workbook and Resources, with
instant feedback and automatic grading to help students and teachers monitor progress
• Teacher’s Book: teacher’s notes with an access
code to all of the online resource materials
The B1+ level, improved and updated for the
second edition, works towards an
upper-intermediate level of English, and starts
students on their journey towards the B2 First for
Schools exam.
• Extensive test package including:
- Diagnostic start-of-course test with A/B versions
- Language and skills unit tests with A/B versions
- Review tests every three units with A/B versions
- End of year test with A/B versions
• Full audioscripts and answer keys for all tests
• Three photocopiable activities per unit, giving extra practice of
grammar, vocabulary and exam skills
• Full teaching notes and answer keys for photocopiable activities
Download all Teacher’s Resource Book material, including test
audio, editable versions of the tests, and versions for students
with dyslexia, from the Teacher’s online resource materials at
english.com/login You can access this site using the code inside
the Teacher’s Book front cover.
Trang 2TEACHER’S RESOURCE BOOK
B1+Pre-First for Schools
Trang 3Photocopiable activities: Teacher’s notes 207
Trang 4The Gold Experience Assessment Package provides a wide
range of tests which can be used at different points in the
course Each level has:
• A and B Diagnostic Test
• 9 x A and B Unit Tests
• 3 x A and B Review Tests
• A and B End of Year Test
Any test can be used either as assessment for learning or
assessment of learning Assessment of learning usually
takes place after the learning has happened and provides
information about what the student is achieving The student
is usually given a mark or a grade You can also use the tests
as assessment for learning by using the tests to provide
information on how well students have understood new
language or skills, and then providing them with specific
feedback and suggestions for improvement as part of the
continual learning process
A combination of both types of assessment can provide
powerful tools for helping your students’ progress
Teacher’s Resources site
In addition to the tests in this Teacher’s Resource Book, the
tests are also provided on the Teacher’s Resources site in both
PDF and Word format We recommend using them in the PDF
version, as they are However, if you do need to edit the tests,
this should be possible in the Word version
The audio files accompanying the listening exercises
in the Skills and End of Year tests can also be found on
the Teacher’s Resources site
The access code for the Teacher’s Resources site is in the front
of your Teacher’s Book
Versions of tests
Most tests have two versions: A and B Versions A and B are
designed to be at exactly the same level of difficulty and
feature the same task types, however, the test items in each
are different For listening tests, the tasks are different but
the audio is the same in both A and B versions, making it easy
to administer
You can use the A/B tests in two ways:
• give half of the class A versions and half of the class B
versions - this helps to deter cheating
• give all students the A test and then use the B test either
for students who missed the test or as a re-test or remedial
work for students whose score shows they need a little more
work on the unit objectives
On the Teacher’s Resources site, there is also a version of the
tests adapted for students with special educational needs
See the next section for more information
OVERVIEW OF THE ASSESSMENT PACKAGE
Assessment for dyslexic students
One of the most effective ways of checking classroom work and the teaching programme is through testing Tests can show which learning materials work best for individual students, so teachers need to be able to select the most appropriate tests for their students The two most important aspects of a test concern a) validity: whether or not the test measures what it is supposed to measure and b) reliability:
whether it would produce similar results when used with a similar group under the same conditions at a different time
When we consider validity, it is evident that tests written to measure reading comprehension, vocabulary, grammar or communication, will fail to obtain valid test results for dyslexic students The type of reading difficulties dyslexic students experience in processing print affects all language skills and consequently will not provide valid information about their actual knowledge or skills The same problem affects the reliability of a test Obviously, if the same written test is used with dyslexic students and non-dyslexic students from the same class, the results will be significantly different for the two groups
The Gold Experience Assessment Package offers alternative versions of tests for dyslexic learners While the language content and linguistic level of the material tested is the same
as in the main tests, a number of changes make it easier for dyslexic students to process For example, these tests have
a larger point size with increased spacing between the lines, and tasks which require multi-tasking have been reduced in complexity See the introduction to the adapted tests for more detail
Exam preparation
As your students are going to be working towards a final stakes exam, the tests also provide regular opportunities for them to try exam-style tasks in a low-stakes test environment, which should help them feel more confident going into the final exam
high-We would recommend using past papers or practice papers
in addition as you get close to the date of the exam There
is one full practice test in Unit 10 of the Workbook, and two further complete practice exams are available in the Exam Practice booklet
Expected outcomes
We would expect all students who have completed the instructional material to score at least 50%, and the best students to score 90-100% on any given test We have deliberately included more challenging questions in each test
so as to help you identify students performing above the level
Trang 5TEST FORMAT
The Unit, Review and End of Year tests have several parts to them This helps makes them fl exible, and allows you to assign only
the parts you want to or have time to administer and mark In addition to the tests in this Teacher’s Resource Book, the tests are
also provided on the Teacher’s Resources site in both PDF and Word format We recommend using them in the PDF version, as
they are However, if you do need to edit the tests, this should be possible in the Word version
Unit Tests
Language: Grammar, Vocabulary and Use of
English (A/B)
Skills: Listening and Reading (A/B)
9 (aft er each main unit)
9 (aft er each main unit)
5050
25–30 mins20–30 mins
Review Tests
Grammar, Vocabulary and Use of English (A/B)
Writing
Speaking (A/B/Teacher)
3 (aft er every three units)
3 (aft er every three units)
3 (aft er every three units)
502525
30 mins
30 mins10–15 mins per pair
End of year Test
Listening, Reading and Use of English (A/B)
Writing
Speaking (A/B/Teacher)
1 (at end of course)
1 (at end of course)
1 (at end of course)
502525
45 mins
45 mins10–15 mins per pair
For practice Cambridge exams, please see Unit 10 of the Workbook and the separate Exam Practice booklets
Diagnostic Test
The main purpose of the Diagnostic Test is to help you identify
any general areas of strength or weakness across the class
This will help you tailor your lessons to your class and maximise
your time with your students The Diagnostic Test will also
help to place students at the right level of the Gold Experience
series The test contains 100 multiple-choice questions and is
designed to last for 45 minutes
To help score and analyse the Diagnostic Test, groups of
questions are labelled by language topic in the answer key
Mark your students’ test papers, and use the following guide to
help you decide what to do next:
• If students get fewer than 10 of the answers right, they may
not have the basic language knowledge required for this
level Consider starting with the level below
• If students get 10–49 correct, assess their answers to check
where remediation or extra help is required Focus extra help
on topics from questions 1–25
• If students score 50–74, assess their scores and, if they score
at the upper end of this, consider an additional oral interview
to decide whether this is the most appropriate level for
Unit Tests
There are nine Unit Tests, which test the learning objectives from each main unit (aft er Unit 10, students would take the End of Year test) These should be administered aft er each respective unit check
Each Unit Test has two parts: Language (Grammar, Vocabulary and Use of English); and Skills (Listening and Reading) Both parts have A and B versions There is also a version of the A tests for students with dyslexia
You can assign both or neither of these, depending on the time available If you are including the listening test, it is best to run the listening audio fi rst, and then students can do the other sections in their own time
The tests will take approximately:
– Language: Grammar, Vocabulary and Use of English:
25–30 minutes
– Skills: Listening and Reading: 20–30 minutes
The Unit Test as a whole is out of 100 marks The parts of the test are split as follows:
– Language: Grammar, Vocabulary and Use of English:
Trang 6The End of Year Test provides a skills-based test covering learning objectives from the whole course
The test has three parts: Listening, Reading and Use of English;
Writing; Speaking Grammar, Vocabulary and Use of English papers have A and B versions, as well as a version of the A tests for students with dyslexia There is only one version of the Writing task Students do the Speaking tasks in pairs, and there are separate materials for students A and B, as well as a version for the teacher with questions
You can assign all or none of the parts of the test, depending
on the time available
The tests will take approximately:
– Listening, Reading and Use of English: 45 mins – Writing: 45 minutes
– Speaking: 10–15 minutes per pair of students
The End of Year Test as a whole is out of 100 marks The parts
of the test are split as follows:
– Listening, Reading and Use of English: 50 marks – Writing: 25 marks
– Speaking: 25 marks
Marking the tests
The Language test answer keys include references to specifi c Student’s Book pages for revision
Writing and Speaking tests have detailed mark schemes out
of 25 (see pages 171–172), similar to the Cambridge mark schemes, to help you mark consistently, and to help you give students meaningful feedback If you prefer to use the actual mark scheme for the exam your students will ultimately take, these are available online
Whichever mark scheme you use, it can be very useful to go through it with your students before they take the test so they know what they are going to be marked against You can then refer back to these marking criteria and bands in your feedback
There are three Review Tests (one every three units) These
are cumulative achievement tests, and so test the learning
objectives from all units so far in the course, but with a heavier
focus on the most recent units:
• Review Test 1: Units 1–3
• Review Test 2: Units 4–6
• Review Test 3: Units 7–9
Depending on your school year, you may wish to do all of these
or just some of them
Each test has three parts: Grammar, Vocabulary and Use of
English; Writing; Speaking Grammar, Vocabulary and Use of
English papers have A and B versions, as well as a version of the
A tests for students with dyslexia There is only one version of
the Writing task Students do the Speaking tasks in pairs, and
there are separate materials for students A and B, as well as a
version for the teacher with questions
As with the Unit Tests, you can assign all or none of the parts
of the test, depending on the time available
The tests will take approximately:
– Grammar, Vocabulary and Use of English: 30 minutes
– Writing: 30 minutes
– Speaking: 10–15 minutes per pair of students
The Review Tests as a whole are out of 100 marks The parts of
the test are split as follows:
– Grammar, Vocabulary and Use of English: 50 marks
– Writing: 25 marks
– Speaking: 25 marks
Trang 7Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to complete the sentences.
1 They three or four hours a day playing video games
A are spending B is spending C spends D spend
2 Why out the washing now? It looks like it’s going to rain
A does she put B doesn’t she putting C is she putting D isn’t she putting
3 Somebody took her purse while she for directions
A asked B was asking C ask D is asking
4 I’ve got a great app on my phone which helps me from Spanish to English
A explain B pronounce C translate D understand
5 the right university can be complicated for school-leavers
A Choosing B Choose C To choose D Chosen
6 We make a vegetable curry because we haven’t got the right ingredients
A going to B ’re going to C not going to D aren’t going to
7 Do you know where the is? I want to change the channel on the TV
A coffee maker B dishwasher C remote control D smart TV
8 about going to the cinema this evening? I fancy watching a film
9 I Fiona since she was a little girl and we’re still best friends
A known B knew C have known D know
10 We the other team by five points so we’re in the next round of the tournament
11 I’ve seen Holly in the supermarket She was helping her mum with the shopping
12 When you this button, the machine starts working
A press B pressed C will start D would start
13 If I connect my guitar to my computer, I can my songs straight onto my hard drive
A book B entertain C record D review
14 If I more free time, I would learn to play the guitar
A had B have C will have D would have
15 English by millions of school children all around the world
A learn B learns C is learnt D are learnt
16 My auntie’s house is on the top of a high
17 My parents had a new dining table by a local carpenter
A made B make C making D makes
18 I’d like to find someone knows how to fix my computer
DIAGNOSTIC TEST A
Trang 821 I’m not really playing video games I prefer doing something more energetic.
22 They said they abroad last summer, but I think they stayed at home in the end
A will go B go C would go D are going
23 Do you know how much for her new bicycle?
A she did pay B did she pay C paid she D she paid
24 to spend much time playing outside when you were younger?
A Did you use B Did you used C Used you D You did use
25 It’s normal to feel before an exam, but you should try to relax
A annoyed B calm C confi dent D nervous
26 We carried out a to fi nd out how oft en teenagers play sports
A poverty B charity C volunteer D survey
27 Julian is always fun of me I really don’t like it
A make B making C makes D made
28 Harry looks really when he’s wearing a tie He should wear one more oft en!
A casual B outfi t C pale D smart
29 The show wasn’t very because the acting was terrible
A enjoyable B fashionable C responsible D suitable
30 I’m sure they’ll fi nish soon They since eight o’clock this morning
A ’ve been working B were working C have worked D worked
31 We had an amazing time on holiday The hotel and the beach were
A awful B awesome C disgusting D terrifying
32 By the time we got home the programme so we didn’t see any of it
A had fi nished B fi nished C was fi nished D would fi nish
33 My neighbourhood a small village, but now it’s part of the city
A had been B would be C used to be D was being
34 We weren’t to get on the bus so we had to wait for the next one
A too quick B as quick C enough quick D quick enough
35 She opened the parcel because she didn’t want to break it
A badly B carefully C noisily D suspiciously
36 I at school for the rehearsal this evening so I’ll probably be home quite late
A won’t stay B will be staying C will have stayed D stay
37 The weather should be much better by the time you to visit us
A come B are coming C will come D will be coming
38 The debate is start at seven o’clock so we need to arrive by 6.45 p.m
A about to B probably C due to D unlikely to
39 I couldn’t do my smartphone I use it for everything
A away B from C with D without
40 We need to this mess before my parents get home or they’ll be very cross
A chop down B clean up C cut down D kill off
DIAGNOSTIC TEST A
Trang 941 If you don’t understand the exercise, you to tell the teacher.
A can B don’t have C ought D should
42 I go skateboarding when I was younger My dad thought it was too dangerous
A wasn’t allowed to B shouldn’t C could D needn’t
43 I’m hopeless this game I can never get past the fi rst level
44 If you take this medicine, you feel better by the weekend
A can’t B must C should D would
45 Your brother is very He’s always playing sport or doing exercise
A active B anxious C confi dent D creative
46 I’ve got a friend dad is a well-known TV actor
47 We’d like to live in an area there are more parks and outdoors spaces
48 Mr Bowden is worried because Tim doesn’t seem to be in Geography
A getting away B giving up C working out D keeping up
49 You just need to use your common to solve this problem
A feeling B experience C meaning D sense
50 Some students to raise money for charity are organising a rock concert
A hope B hoping C hopes D hoped
51 You shouldn’t throw that old vase away It might be a lot of money
52 My grandmother’s just got a smartphone, but she doesn’t know how it
53 My dentist encouraged my teeth more oft en
A to clean B to clean me C me to clean D clean
54 Rhinoceroses have very poor They can only see clearly a few metres in front of themselves
A hearing B sound C taste D vision
55 Some people believe that it is not acceptable to on animals in laboratories
A experiment B explore C observe D research
56 I tried on two pairs of jeans, but of them looked very good on me
57 I didn’t have any birthday cake because there was only left
A few B a few C little D a little
58 When it’s hot in summer, we usually just have instead of blankets
A carpets B cushions C rugs D sheets
DIAGNOSTIC TEST A
Trang 1061 My jacket got soaked in the rain so I’d better to dry.
A hang it up B put it up C clear it up D tidy it up
62 If only I a book to read I didn’t realise I’d have to wait so long
A took B had taken C would take D would have taken
63 I’d rather not my parents for more money They won’t want to lend it to me
A ask B to ask C asked D asking
64 There are lots of jobs to do on a ship so the are usually quite busy
A cabins B crew C decks D ports
65 The winner of the song contest on next week’s show
A is announcing B announces C will announce D will be announced
66 We complained because we the wrong meal in the restaurant
A had given B had been given C have given D have been given
67 According to some reports, the teenager spends at least two hours a day on social media
A average B even C odd D positive
68 My hair’s really bothering me at the moment I might off by my hairdresser
A shave it off B shave off it C have it shaved D have shaved it
69 I managed to work out the answer, but it was a very diffi cult
A calculate B calculator C calculating D calculation
70 Michael us he would be waiting outside the entrance to the theatre
A told B said C explained D mentioned
71 Olivia only mentioned that she her purse at home aft er they took our order
A left B had left C would leave D was leaving
72 I don’t want to the game because I’m terrible at volleyball
A bring together B bring in C join together D join in
73 The training course wasn’t much fun, but it was a useful learning
A art B culture C experience D skill
74 She asked me I felt about playing the lead role in the school play
A how B that C whether D who
75 Brendan’s parents warned him so much time on the internet
A spend B spending C to spend D not to spend
76 The older you are, it gets to stay awake in the evening
A harder B hardest C the harder D the hardest
77 The problem with many of our high street shops is that they aren’t enough
A compete B competition C competitive D uncompetitive
78 Ryan has got absolutely no sense of Wherever he goes, he ends up completely lost
A achievement B direction C freedom D rhythm
79 If you want people to listen to your message, you have to in a clear and interesting way
A get it across B give it away C put it off D try it out
80 We all day so we were pleased to fi nally get a rest
A have walked B have been walking C had been walked D had been walking
DIAGNOSTIC TEST A
Trang 1181 Neil didn’t pass his maths exam so he’s at the moment.
A blown away B down in the dumps C over the moon D into the swing of it
82 French are known all over the world for their sense of fashion
83 By the time they their supper, it will be time for bed
A had B are having C will have D have had
84 My father is going to take some from his job so we can go on holiday
A time off B part-time C shift s D retirement
85 Billions of tonnes of food are produced every year, but of it gets thrown away
A each B a great deal C a number of D several
86 There are some huge apartment in my neighbourhood Some of them are more than fi ft een storeys high
A areas B blocks C spaces D spots
87 Provided that you all the grammar points, you won’t have any problems in the exam
A will have revised B revised C will revise D have revised
88 Sometimes the buses are delayed, but the whole they arrive on time
89 We packed our bags last night so as ready to leave early this morning
A be B to be C being D been
90 I regret to Sandra’s house last weekend It sounds like they had a great time
A to go B going C not going D not to go
91 My room is such a mess because I never get tidying it up
A down B together C round to D back to
92 A man wanted for robbery to have escaped to the south of France
A thought B is thought C is thinking D thinks
93 I’m afraid we’re so we won’t be able to pick you up until six o’clock
A at the last minute B in time C in good time D running late
94 I hope they don’t our road There’s far too much traffi c already
95 Her friends advised her in the exam because she would fail if she got caught
A to cheat B against cheating C not cheating D against not cheating
96 I was surprised their failure to check our identifi cation at the airport
97 They ought us that they were going away last weekend
A to tell B have told C told D to have told
98 of being new in class, Donna seems to have fi tted in very well with the other students
A Despite B In spite C Though D Although
DIAGNOSTIC TEST A
Trang 12Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to complete the sentences.
1 He the guitar for at least an hour every day
A practises B is practising C practise D are practising
2 What ? It smells delicious
A do you cook B are you cook C are you cooking D is you cooking
3 I fell off my bike when I home from school
A cycle B cycling C was cycling D cycled
4 I don’t some German words very well so some people don’t understand me
A explain B pronounce C repeat D speak
5 friends is easy when you’re young, but it gets more difficult when you’re older
A Make B To make C Made D Making
6 The weather is really bad in the mountains so we cancel the excursion
A not going to B aren’t going to C ’re going to D going to
7 I don’t like washing up so I’m glad we’ve got a
A coffee maker B dishwasher C fridge-freezer D washing machine
8 we get the bus into town? I don’t feel like walking
9 I to Paris, but I would like to go one day
A have never been B have ever been C have been D had been
10 Messi a goal in the last minute of the match, but Barça didn’t win
11 A: Have you seen Laura? B: No She hasn’t got home from school
12 If you my diary, will you let me know?
A came across B come across C will come across D would come across
13 Have you still got your video camera? We’re looking for someone to the school concert
A book B entertain C film D review
14 If I near the sea, I’d go surfing every day
A live B lived C have lived D had lived
15 A lot of traffic accidents by people driving too fast
A are caused B is caused C cause D causes
16 Weston is great for children because it’s got a lovely sandy
17 We need to get the house this year It’s starting to look untidy now
A paint B painter C painted D painting
18 These are the shoes I wore to my sister’s wedding They’re nice, aren’t they?
19 I usually for a flight online because it saves time at the airport
A check in B delay C land D take off
20 She leave her laptop at home because there wasn’t enough space in her bag
A have to B must C had to D must have
DIAGNOSTIC TEST B
Trang 1321 I like to hang with my friends at the weekend We usually go to the shopping centre.
22 She said she help me because she was too busy
A could B couldn’t C mustn’t D would
23 Did he tell you where my exercise book?
A he did leave B did he leave C he left D left he
24 Where to go on holiday when you were a child?
A you did use B used you C did you used D did you use
25 Eva’s a little because she gets her exam results tomorrow
A calm B embarrassed C mad D worried
26 Our objective is to reduce the number of children living in
A volunteer B charity C poverty D survey
27 Penny a bath at the moment so it’s better if you call back later
28 We need a bright, design for our T-shirt so that people stop and look at it
29 George is usually very and he doesn’t tend to do silly things
A comfortable B enjoyable C sensible D suitable
30 I hope you long – we’ve been very busy today
A have waited B have been waiting C haven’t been waiting D waited
31 There was rubbish all over the beach It was absolutely
A awesome B disgusting C massive D terrifi c
32 It was the scariest fi lm I I had to cover my eyes for most of it
A ever seen B ever saw C had never seen D had ever seen
33 We live in the city now, but we in the country
A would live B had lived C were living D used to live
34 The water isn’t to make tea at the moment Wait a few more minutes
A too hot B as hot C hot enough D enough hot
35 We were waiting for a long time, but the shop assistant came over to us
A badly B eventually C frequently D unfortunately
36 Don’t come to my house at eight o’clock We our dinner at that time
A will have B will have had C will be having D are having
37 By the time you my age, the world will be completely diff erent
38 I was to close the door when I realised I didn’t have my keys
A due B probably C unlikely D about
DIAGNOSTIC TEST B
Trang 1441 My advice is that you go to the doctor’s if your leg still hurts.
A should B shall C don’t have to D can
42 We stay long at the library I just need to return a few books
A couldn’t B mustn’t C needn’t D should
43 Teresa has been really stressed her driving test I hope she passes
44 If we leave now, we get to school by nine o’clock
A should B mustn’t C must D couldn’t
45 Ottie is a very person She’s good at using her imagination to make things
A anxious B competitive C creative D unfriendly
46 The website, attracts hundreds of visitors every day, has been a great success
A that B who C whose D which
47 Nelson Mandela was an activist work has inspired millions of people
A where B which C whose D why
48 I nearly in the marathon, but I continued to the end
A gave away B gave off C gave out D gave up
49 It’s very hard to focus my homework while you’re talking so loudly
50 Fruit and vegetables by local farmers are the key ingredients in our recipes
A grew B grow C grown D growing
51 I was wondering if you could me a few euros for a bus ticket?
A aff ord B borrow C lend D spend
52 My parents still aren’t sure where on holiday this year
A going B they go C go D to go
53 Belinda convinced at home and watch a fi lm
A to stay B us to stay C us stay D that we stay
54 Bats have excellent , which they use to help them fi nd their way around
A hearing B sound C taste D vision
55 Scientists that the Earth’s temperature is likely to continue rising in the future
A experiment B observe C preview D predict
56 I tried on lots of clothes, but of them looked very good on me
A both B all C neither D none
57 We’ve eaten most of the sandwiches, but there are left for you
A few B a few C little D a little
58 Shall I close the ? It’s getting dark now
A blankets B curtains C rugs D sheets
59 I think we’ll be late for the meeting unless we a taxi
A will get B had got C got D get
60 If United had made a bit more eff ort, they the match
A had won B will win C will have won D would have won
DIAGNOSTIC TEST B
Trang 1561 I made a poster at school today and the teacher on the classroom wall.
A cleared it up B put it away C put it up D sorted it out
62 I wish we about the traffi c jams before we left We could be stuck for hours
A had known B know C would know D would have known
63 I’d rather a shower than a bath It’s more refreshing
A had B have C to have D having
64 Maurice is named his grandfather who was a famous artist
65 According to their email, we at the airport and taken to the hotel
A will meet B will be met C will be meeting D will have met
66 They were upset because they to turn the television off
A have told B have been told C had told D had been told
67 The of children who do physical exercise every day has risen steadily
A average B fraction C percentage D series
68 I don’t know how to fi x the screen on my phone I’ll by a professional
A look at it B have looked at it C have it looked at D be looked at
69 The government hopes to create more for young people in the next ten years
A employ B employers C employment D unemployment
70 My parents the school that I was sick and would be staying at home
A explained B informed C insisted D mentioned
71 Julie complained that her friends her any chocolate
A saved B wouldn’t save C had saved D hadn’t saved
72 It’s important to your energy before you run a big race
A bring together B build up C start out D try out
73 Owen seems to have a lot of artistic He’s especially good at painting
A character B culture C imagination D skill
74 Vanessa asked I wanted to go swimming with her so I agreed
75 Ophelia begged me anything to John about the surprise party
A to say B not to say C saying D not saying
76 The later you go to bed, you’ll be in the morning
A more tired B most tired C the more tired D the most tired
77 It was trying to get to school The roads were all closed because of the snow
A hopeful B hoping C hopeless D unhopeful
78 I had a wonderful sense of aft er I completed the Athens Marathon
A achievement B direction C freedom D rhythm
DIAGNOSTIC TEST B
Trang 1681 Carmel was to fi nd out she had got a place at her fi rst choice of university.
A down in the dumps B high in her list C over the moon D into the swing of it
82 I don’t think our government does enough to help poor
83 As soon as I watering the garden, I’ll come round to your house
A have fi nished B am fi nishing C will have fi nished D fi nished
84 My mum works in a factory Sometimes she works nights and sometimes she works days
A time off B part-time C shift s D my own boss
85 of people reported seeing a strange object shooting across the sky
A Each B A deal C A number D Several
86 What I like about my city is that there are plenty of play for children
A areas B blocks C spaces D spots
87 As you long as you the truth, you haven’t got anything to worry about
A had told B have told C will tell D will have told
88 Why are you shouting the top of your voice?
89 In order money, the Falcon Heavy has rockets which are reusable
A save B saving C to have saved D to save
90 My grandfather’s forgotten me last week I’m afraid his memory is getting worse
A to see B seeing C not seeing D not to see
91 It gets me when I hear about all the sad things happening in the world
A down B together C round D back
92 It that global warming has been increasing faster than predicted
A believes B is believing C is believed D was believed
93 Alan is really disorganised He always does his homework
A at the last minute B in time C in good time D running late
94 My neighbours are building a swimming pool whose is twenty metres
A long B longer C length D lengthen
95 My teacher congratulated my Maths exam
A me to pass B me passing C on passing D me on passing
96 My sister is very dedicated her voluntary work She does it every weekend
97 We needn’t about not getting in to the exhibition The museum was empty!
A to worry B worry C be worried D have worried
98 not knowing any of the other players, I enjoyed football training
A Despite B In spite C Though D Although
99 was Wendy who recommended we check out this beach
100 We’re the pros and cons of buying a smart TV Dana thinks it’s a good idea, but I’m not sure
A speaking out about B sleeping on C weighing up D having second thoughts about
Total: 100
DIAGNOSTIC TEST B
Trang 17Complete the text with the correct present or present perfect form of the verbs in brackets Sometimes more than one answer is possible
The real Pete 4D
Over the last few years, Pete 4D (16)
(become) one of the most loved DJs in the world
He regularly (17) (play) his particular style
of electronic music to crowds of young fans all over the
world He (18) (come back, just) from a month-long tour of Asia, where he entertained fans in India, Japan and Vietnam and this weekend he will be in Las Vegas What’s more, Pete is also a respected music
producer He (19) (work on) his third studio album for the last few months All of this at only twenty-four years old
Despite the apparently glamorous lifestyle, Pete
(20) (come across) as a quiet, thoughtful young man Although his DJ gigs are full of loud,
fast-paced dance tunes, Pete (21)
(not listen, only) to this type of music in his free time
He is a collector of rare world music and an expert
on South American folk music At the moment,
he (22) (write) a book about the history
of Ecuadorian music Pete 4D is definitely not your average dance music DJ!
When Pete (23) (not be) on tour in the world’s biggest cities, he prefers to spend his time in the countryside He has recently bought an old farm
in Cornwall, in the south west of England, where he
(24) (spend) a lot of his time these days
At the moment, workmen (25) (repair)
the old farm buildings, but Pete (26)
(plan) to move into the farm in the near future
Recently, he (27) (study) an online course
in organic farming methods and when he finishes, he
(28) (want) to start growing organic fruit and vegetables on the farm
This (29) (not seem) like the type of thing
a twenty-something DJ would normally do In fact,
it (30) (sound) more like someone’s retirement plans However, Pete hasn’t shown any signs
VOCABULARY
Task 1
Complete the sentences with the correct form of the words
in brackets
1 It’s important to be relaxed for the yoga class so you
should wear (comfort) clothes
2 The Lord of the Rings is one of the most
(memory) books I’ve read
3 The librarian is (respond) for organising and
ordering the books in the library
4 The children are usually quite (sense)
They won’t do anything silly
5 I would like to have more (fashion) clothes,
but I can’t afford it
5
Task 2
Choose the correct words to complete the sentences
6 There are fewer people living in extreme charity / poverty
today than there were thirty years ago
7 The students in my class are trying to raise / help out
money for a new classroom computer
8 She’s a really casual / cute baby Everyone says how
pretty she is
9 Heather has been contributing / encouraging me to sign
up for the volleyball team
10 It’s important to take pride in / on your appearance It’s the
first thing people notice
11 It started to rain so Kevin pulled his hood / sleeve up
over his head
12 There is a new government campaign / volunteer to
persuade people to eat more healthily
13 The waiters were so rude It really got me into / put me off
eating in that restaurant
14 I’ve been revising for my exams so it hasn’t been a very
relaxing / stressful weekend.
15 I’ve got very bold / pale skin so I have to be careful in
the sun
10
UNIT 1: LANGUAGE TEST A
Trang 18USE OF ENGLISH
Task 1
Complete the second sentence so that that is has a similar meaning to the fi rst sentence using the word given
Do not change the word given Use between two and fi ve words, including the word given
31 She started to learn the violin when she was seven.
BEEN
She the violin since she was seven
32 I don’t oft en get help from him with the washing up.
USUALLY
33 They came back from their holidays not long ago.
JUST
They back from their holidays
34 It bothers me that Anita criticises the way I speak.
ALWAYS
Anita the way I speak – it really bothers me!
35 It has been at least two weeks since the last time Ingrid called me.
FOR
36 A lot of my classmates have started to become interested in YouTuber books this term.
GETTING
A lot of my classmates YouTuber books recently
12
Task 2
Read the article and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fi ts each gap
The tracksuit is a(n) (37) which consists of a top and trousers They were originally designed for athletes who needed
something (38) to wear for competitions Tracksuits could be worn on top of shorts and vests Sometimes they
also had a (39) to keep the athletes’ heads warm Comfort is important (40) they are usually made of materials
which help the body ‘breathe’ The trousers are oft en loose and the tops usually have a (41) so it can be worn open
and taken off easily Tracksuits fi rst became popular outside of the sporting world in the 1970s People realised that,
because they were (42) , tracksuits were ideal for wearing at home or at the disco More people got (43) them
and tracksuits became a fashion item Nike and Adidas are probably the most famous brands and they oft en use bright,
(44) colours
37 A accessory B clothing C outfi t D style
38 A suitable B understandable C memorable D responsible
39 A hair clip B hood C necklace D wig
40 A because B due to C owing to D so
41 A bow B button C strap D zip
42 A sensible B enjoyable C comfortable D incredible
44 A bold B dark C dull D pale
8Total: 50
UNIT 1: LANGUAGE TEST A
Trang 19Complete the text with the correct present or present perfect form of the verbs in brackets Sometimes more than one answer is possible
The real Shelly Smith
Shelly Smith (16) (win, just) her third Grammy award; this time for the best song Her fast-paced pop music is known all over the world and she
regularly (17) (entertain) her fans with
her electrifying concerts She (18)
(visit, already) every continent and she plans to do
at least eighty concerts this year Not only that,
but currently she (19) (record) her fifth album, which will be released later this year The most incredible thing about Shelly is that she is still only twenty-five years old
There is no doubt that Shelly (20) (enjoy) the sort of lifestyle that many people can only dream
of She’s got an amazing voice, a modelling career and she’s worth millions On stage she sings high energy
pop hits, but in her free time (21) (not listen, usually) to pop music Instead, her real interest
is jazz music Although few fans will be aware of it,
she (22) (sing) in a little-known jazz group for the last five years In contrast to her pop act, Shelly’s jazz group only performs small concerts, usually to less than 100 people
Shelly tends to stay at home with her family when she
(23) (not work) Although she has a flat in
New York, she (24) (not stay) there often
In fact, she (25) (not visit) New York since last year Shelly’s family all live in Manchester where
she was born and together they (26)
(buy, just) a large house there There’s enough room
for her parents and sister and she (27)
(spend) her time with them whenever she can
Shelly stays in touch with her old friends and she
(28) (go) out with them when she’s
at home
At the moment, Shelly (29) (plan)
to stop entertaining her fans In fact, her diary for next year is already full of concert dates However,
VOCABULARY
Task 1
Complete the sentences with the correct form of the words
in brackets
1 It’s perfectly (understand) that Jack doesn’t
want to lend you his bike
2 It would be (sense) to wear a raincoat
It’s looking very cloudy outside
3 It was a very (memory) holiday We some
awesome sights
4 I don’t think that programme is very (suit)
for young children
5 Greta was (respond) for making the
sandwiches for the picnic
5
Task 2
Choose the correct words to complete the sentences
6 Exams can be very relaxing / stressful so it’s important to
find ways to relax
7 You need to take the strap / sticker off your T-shirt It has
the price on it!
8 The government has started a campaign / charity to warn
people to drive more carefully
9 I gave up on / got into that space documentary because it
was so boring
10 We carried out a charity / survey to find out what young
people like doing in their free time
11 If you have an interview, you should always wear something
casual / smart.
12 Marty has got a pool at his house so don’t forget your
raincoat / swimsuit.
13 The mountain walk was really scary / tiring I went straight
to bed when I got home
14 If you get a pet, you must care for / help out it.
15 I like to pull my hood / sleeve up when it’s cold It keeps my
head warm
10
UNIT 1: LANGUAGE TEST B
Trang 20USE OF ENGLISH
Task 1
Complete the second sentence so that that is has a similar meaning to the fi rst sentence using the word given Do not
change the word given Use between two and fi ve words, including the word given
31 I fi nd it annoying that Hector leaves his books all over the fl oor.
ALWAYS
Hector his books all over the fl oor – it’s so annoying!
32 I’ve had some help from my brother with my geography project for the last few weeks.
OUT
My brother has with my geography project for the last few weeks
33 Lena isn’t a regular player in our netball team.
REGULARLY
34 It has been about a year since I last saw her.
Read the article and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fi ts each gap
A good handbag is an essential (37) for many people nowadays It’s the ideal way to carry your most important
possessions: keys, money, sunglasses, etc People (38) used bags for thousands of years, but the modern handbag
only appeared a few hundred years ago Before that, many people carried purses which they attached to their belts
These were smaller and only (39) for carrying small amounts of money These were used by both men and women,
but when pockets were invented, most men gave (40) using them Soon aft er that, women started carrying purses
with a small (41) which they could attach to their wrist Since then, styles have changed many times They can
be worn across the shoulder or carried in the hand Some of them have metal buttons to close them and others have
(42) They are also made from all sorts of materials Leather became especially popular (43) it is strong and lasts
a long time Although handbags are not always expensive, the most (44) ones can costs thousands of pounds
37 A accessory B dress C outfi t D set
38 A had B have C haven’t D hadn’t
39 A enjoyable B responsible C memorable D suitable
41 A bow B hood C strap D wig
42 A earrings B hair clips C stickers D zips
43 A because B due to C owing to D so
44 A sensible B fashionable C comfortable D understandable
8Total: 50
UNIT 1: LANGUAGE TEST B
Trang 213 You hear a boy discussing a show he has been to
What complaint does he have?
A The first performer was only on stage for five minutes.
B The second performer wasn’t any good at what they
were doing
C Too many people were laughing at the wrong time.
4 You hear a news story about a girl who has done something
special What has she done?
A been giving food to people who don’t have a home
B won an award from the Prime Minister
C organised a soup kitchen
5 You hear two friends talking about a tennis match
What do they agree about the match?
A Gunter was more exciting than the other player.
B The players didn’t make much effort.
C It wasn’t a very good match.
6 You hear two friends talking about buying a present for
someone What do they decide to buy?
A a handbag
B a purse
C a jacket
7 You hear a girl talking to her father about a concert
What is the problem?
A Her father would like her to take care of her brother.
B Her father can’t take her to the concert.
C Auntie Sandra isn’t usually free on Friday evenings.
8 You hear two friends talking about one of their teachers
What do they agree on?
A that they are disappointed with her
B that she’s a bit strange
C that her teaching style is better
9 You hear a woman talking about losing her wedding ring
How does she feel?
A sure that she needs to carry on looking for it
B not so worried about it any more
C afraid to say anything to her husband
10 You hear a boy talking to a friend about a new jacket he
has bought He is pleased because
A it’s not always easy to find the right size.
B he didn’t want a jacket with a hood.
C it’s smart enough to wear to school.
20
DICTATION
You are going to listen to a recording about a new charity
Listen to the whole recording once Then you will hear the
recording again with pauses for you to write down what you
hear Make sure you spell the words correctly
10
LISTENING
You are going to listen to people talking in ten different
situations For questions 1–10, choose the answer (A, B or C)
which fits best according to what you hear
1 You hear a mother talking to her daughter about the school
holidays What does the girl’s mother suggest?
A that the girl help her grandmother with the cleaning
B that the girl take a friend to her grandmother’s house
C that the girl spend some time at her grandmother’s
house
2 You hear a boy talking about an exam he has taken
UNIT 1: SKILLS TEST A
Trang 22Task 1
You are going to read an article about how four young people spend Saturday morning
For questions 11–17, choose from people A–D The people may be chosen more than once
Which person/people:
11 thinks it is necessary to get some exercise on Saturday mornings?
12 would prefer not to get up early on Saturday mornings?
13 doesn’t have the same free time as some of their friends?
14 always looks forward to Saturday mornings?
15 does an activity because of someone’s advice?
16 doesn’t get paid for the work they do on a Saturday morning?
17 enjoys being outside when it’s quiet?
18 practises sports during the week?
19 was unhappy about starting their activity at fi rst?
20 thinks they will benefi t from their activity in the future?
10
Task 2
Read the article again and answer the questions in your own words
21 What does Stuart think is good about the classes on Saturdays?
22 Why doesn’t Nadia spend much time at home aft er she goes jogging?
23 Why does Amelia think it’s important to relax at the weekend?
24 What does Tom fi nd diffi cult about saving up money?
25 Which person can’t choose what they do on a Saturday morning? Why?
10Total: 50
UNIT 1: SKILLS TEST A
Trang 23The weekend starts here …
Four teenagers tell us how they spend their Saturday mornings.
A Stuart
Unfortunately, I can’t just do what I want because
I have to go to school It’s not usual for children
to have school on Saturdays, but mine does things
diff erently Tuesday and Thursday afternoons are
free so we can play sports, but there are classes on
Saturdays instead We have four and a half hours of
lessons and this year we’ve got History, Science and
Maths The classes are all right and the teachers make
an eff ort to make them interesting The problem is
that we’re all exhausted by Saturday and it’s really
hard to pay attention in class All of us have got
friends who go to ‘normal’ schools and we know that
they’re out having fun If I had the choice, I would
have extra classes during the week instead I’m sure
we would get more work done that way.
B Nadia
I can never wait for Saturdays to arrive After a whole
week of sitting at my school desk, I have to get out
and use up some energy For me, Saturday morning
is all about sports and having fun with my friends
I usually get up around seven thirty and go for a jog
around the park I know it’s early, but I love that part
of the day It’s so peaceful because most people are
still in bed at that time After that, I go home and
have some breakfast I don’t stay there long though
because I usually play football with my mates
We play in a local league and we have matches most
Saturdays We don’t take it too seriously, but we enjoy
having a good run around and chasing after the ball
By lunchtime, I’m usually exhausted and I go home
for a rest!
C Amelia
In general, I prefer to keep my Saturday mornings free We’re expected to work hard at school and we get a lot of homework Therefore, it’s important to relax at the weekend My perfect Saturday would be staying in bed late and then playing computer games with my friends However, I’ve been working as a volunteer on Saturdays for the last month so I don’t have much free time I’m helping out in an animal sanctuary where we rescue dogs and cats that haven’t got a home I have to do diff erent jobs like cleaning the cages, feeding the animals a nd taking the dogs for walks I must admit that I don’t like getting up
so early on Saturday However, it’s worth it because those poor animals need someone to care for them.
D Tom
I’ve been saving up for a holiday with my friends, but
it hasn’t been easy My parents give me a little money every week, but I usually spend that in no time
When I asked my dad for more money, he encouraged
me to earn the money instead He said I could do little jobs for the neighbours on a Saturday morning
At the beginning, I was disappointed because I didn’t want to lose my free time Then I realised that
if I didn’t work, it would be impossible to save any money Basically, I’ve started washing the neighbours’ cars and cutting the grass in their gardens It’s not exactly hard work and it’s not so bad really I like talking to the neighbours and they pay me quite well
Although I’ve lost my Saturday mornings, at least I’ll
be able to go on holiday with my mates.
UNIT 1: SKILLS TEST A
Trang 243 You hear a boy discussing a show he has been to
Why was he disappointed?
A The show was less than ninety minutes long.
B The second act was extremely bad.
C None of the performers were very famous.
4 You hear a news story about a girl who has done something
special What has she done?
A worked hard for a local charity.
B recently met the Prime Minister.
C helped out in a new type of restaurant.
5 You hear two friends talking about a tennis match
How did the match make them feel?
A disappointed
B excited
C exhausted
6 You hear two friends talking about buying a present for
someone Why do they decide to buy a purse?
A Nancy already has a handbag.
B A handbag costs too much.
C Nancy has just lost a purse.
7 You hear a girl talking to her father about a concert
What is the problem?
A Her father is planning to go out at the same time.
B The girl doesn’t think the band has been practising
enough
C Her father doesn’t want her to go to the concert.
8 You hear two friends talking about one of their teachers
Why do they say about her?
A The last teacher was more interesting.
B She has been quite disappointing so far.
C Her style of teaching is better than the last teacher’s.
9 You hear a woman talking about losing her wedding ring
How does she feel about it now?
A scared about telling her husband
B desperate to find it
C looking forward to getting a new one
10 You hear a boy talking to a friend about a new jacket he
has bought He’s happy because
A he can wear it to school or out with his friends.
B he often has a problem finding the right size.
C he really wanted something sporty.
20
DICTATION
You are going to listen to a recording about a new charity
Listen to the whole recording once Then you will hear the
recording again with pauses for you to write down what you
hear Make sure you spell the words correctly
10
LISTENING
You are going to listen to people talking in ten different
situations For questions 1–10, choose the answer (A, B or C)
which fits best according to what you hear
1 You hear a mother talking to her daughter about the
school holidays What does the girl say about staying at her
grandmother’s house?
A She would be unhappy because she only watches
TV there
B She would love to spend time there.
C She would prefer to go with someone else.
2 You hear a boy talking about an exam he has taken
What was the problem?
A He was too nervous for the grammar and vocabulary part.
B He didn’t want to take the speaking test with a partner.
C He didn’t say enough in the speaking test.
UNIT 1: SKILLS TEST B
Trang 25Task 1
You are going to read an article about four young people spend Saturday morning
For questions 11–17, choose from people A–D The people may be chosen more than once
Which person/people:
11 would prefer not to do their activity at the weekend?
12 regularly takes part in a team sport?
13 thinks their Saturdays are diff erent from those of most children?
14 takes part in an activity for fun?
15 would rather get up later on Saturday mornings?
16 fi nds it diffi cult to concentrate on their activity?
17 eventually followed someone else’s advice?
18 suggests their activity is better than they had expected?
19 has recently started doing their activity on Saturday mornings?
20 appreciates being outdoors early on a Saturday morning?
10
Task 2
Read the article again and answer the questions in your own words
21 Why does Stuart think it would be better to work during the week?
22 How does Nadia feel by the end of Saturday morning?
23 Why do the animals Amelia works with need help?
24 What did Tom think would happen if he didn’t work?
25 How will Tom’s activity benefi t him in the future?
10Total: 50
UNIT 1: SKILLS TEST B
Trang 26The weekend starts here …
Four teenagers tell us how they spend their Saturday mornings.
A Stuart
Unfortunately, I can’t just do what I want because
I have to go to school It’s not usual for children
to have school on Saturdays, but mine does things
diff erently Tuesday and Thursday afternoons are
free so we can play sports, but there are classes on
Saturdays instead We have four and half hours of
lessons and this year we’ve got History, Science and
Maths The classes are all right and the teachers make
an eff ort to make them interesting The problem is
that we’re all exhausted by Saturday and it’s really
hard to pay attention in class All of us have got
friends who go to ‘normal’ schools and we know that
they’re out having fun If I had the choice, I would
have extra classes during the week instead I’m sure
we would get more work done that way.
B Nadia
I can never wait for Saturdays to arrive After a whole
week of sitting at my school desk, I have to get out
and use up some energy For me, Saturday morning
is all about sports and having fun with my friends
I usually get up around seven thirty and go for a jog
around the park I know it’s early, but I love that part
of the day It’s so peaceful because most people are
still in bed at that time After that, I go home and
have some breakfast I don’t stay there long though
because I usually play football with my mates
We play in a local league and we have matches most
Saturdays We don’t take it too seriously, but we enjoy
having a good run around and chasing after the ball
By lunchtime, I’m usually exhausted and I go home
for a rest!
C Amelia
In general, I prefer to keep my Saturday mornings free We’re expected to work hard at school and we get a lot of homework Therefore, it’s important to relax at the weekend My perfect Saturday would be staying in bed late and then playing computer games with my friends However, I’ve been working as a volunteer on Saturdays for the last month so I don’t have much free time I’m helping out in an animal sanctuary where we rescue dogs and cats that haven’t got a home I have to do diff erent jobs like cleaning the cages, feeding the animals and taking the dogs for walks I must admit that I don’t like getting up
so early on Saturday However, it’s worth it because those poor animals need someone to care for them.
D Tom
I’ve been saving up for a holiday with my friends, but it hasn’t been easy My parents give me a little money every week, but I usually spend that in
no time When I asked my dad for more money,
he encouraged me to earn the money instead He said
I could do little jobs for the neighbours on a Saturday morning At the beginning, I was disappointed because I didn’t want to lose my free time Then I realised that if I didn’t work, it would be impossible
to save any money Basically, I’ve started washing the neighbours’ cars and cutting the grass in their gardens It’s not exactly hard work and it’s not so bad really I like talking to the neighbours and they pay me quite well Although I’ve lost my Saturday mornings, at least I’ll be able to go on holiday with
my mates.
UNIT 1: SKILLS TEST B
Trang 27Task 1
Choose the correct words to complete the sentences
16 When I couldn’t do my homework, I was always asking / would always ask my sister for help.
17 By the time we got home, Briony has / had already gone
to bed
18 We had / were having our lunch in the park when it started
to pour with rain
19 It was lovely to see Joana because we hadn’t seen / weren’t seeing her for ages.
20 While we were coming / would come home from the
swimming pool, we saw a boy fall over
21 Marga went / was going for a walk when we’d finished lunch.
22 I used to / would live in a house with a garden, but now
I live in an apartment with a balcony
23 Victor was playing on his computer when his mother called / had called him down for lunch.
8
Task 2
Complete the sentences with the comparative or superlative form of the words in brackets
24 That has to be (ridiculous) film I’ve ever seen.
25 Julio and Erica are just (annoying) as each
other That’s why I can’t stand them
26 The food in that restaurant was (bad) than
the food in Paul’s Café
27 My teacher said I had to work (hard) if
I wanted to pass the course
28 Sapiens is one (interesting) books I’ve read.
29 My dad usually drives (careful) my mum,
which is why I prefer my dad’s driving
30 They asked us to speak (quiet) because the
children were sleeping
7
VOCABULARY
Task 1
Choose the correct words to complete the sentences
1 I felt amazing / ridiculous wearing that lion outfit It looked
really silly
2 I can’t walk across that old bridge It looks absolutely
terrifying / terrific.
3 That new cake shop is awesome / awful It’s got more types
of cake than you can imagine
4 They’re building a delicious / massive skyscraper in the city
centre It’s going to be fifty storeys high
5 I tried to make a curry, but it was delicious / disgusting and
I had to throw most of it away
6 We had a ridiculous / brilliant time at the amusement park
We didn’t want to come home
7 That book was awful / fantastic It was one of the worst
books I’ve ever read
7
Task 2
Complete the sentences with the correct form of
these words
drop find get hang have spot turn wave
8 I’ve never a head for heights so I won’t go
11 They up at our house a bit late, but we
didn’t have to wait too long
12 If you can’t your way to my house, give me
a ring and I’ll come and meet you
13 Try not to that box It’s got glasses and
Trang 28USE OF ENGLISH
Task 1
Complete the second sentence so that that is has a similar meaning to the fi rst sentence using the word given
Do not change the word given Use between two and fi ve words, including the word given
31 I enjoyed the barbecue a lot more than I thought I would.
FAR
The barbecue was than I thought it would be
32 David speaks German better than anyone I know.
WELL
No one I know speaks German David
33 I haven’t tasted many things which are more disgusting in my life.
ONE
It was things I’ve ever tasted
34 Steven didn’t use to be so nervous.
THAN
35 My mum’s car was too small for all of us to fi t in.
ENOUGH
My mum’s car for all of us to fi t in
36 You’d think the journey to school is longer than it is.
When the Apollo 11 spacecraft landed on the moon in 1969, around 600 million people were
(37) watching it on their TVs This was a dangerous mission, but (38) NERVE, HOPE
this would be the fi rst time men set foot on the moon The landing went well and some
(39) pictures of the astronauts’ fi rst steps on the moon were sent back to Earth AMAZE
However, it wasn’t long before some people started to doubt the truth of the moon landings
They became (40) about some of the photographs, saying that they were tricks SUSPICION
They argued that NASA, along with a whole team of fi lm directors and writers,
were (41) for it According to them, there were problems with the light and RESPONSE
shadows in the pictures and that in (42) they had been taken in a studio REAL
Over the years, NASA has (43) managed to convince most people that SUCCESS
the moon landings did take place However, (44) they haven’t convinced FORTUNE
everyone and these stories continue to appear on the internet
8Total: 50
UNIT 2: LANGUAGE TEST A
Trang 29Task 1
Choose the correct words to complete the sentences
16 We were going / went back to Nisa’s house when the film
19 They would always do / were always doing the washing
up after they had eaten their dinner
20 I was waiting for the bus when I had got / got a message
from my mum asking me to get some bread
21 I hadn’t heard / wasn’t hearing from Greg for ages so it
was great to finally hear from him
22 We were leaving / left the house when I realised I’d left
25 You need to walk a bit (fast) if you want
to get to school on time
26 Laurel and Hardy are just (funny) as each other They both make me laugh
27 Elia can kick the ball (hard) than anyone
30 My mum tends to respond (positive)
my dad when I ask if I can stay out late
7
VOCABULARY
Task 1
Choose the correct words to complete the sentences
1 Kyle has got an awesome / awful new game for his
computer I can’t wait to play it
2 It’s ridiculous / amazing news about your brother’s
new job He must be really pleased
3 One of my favourite cities is Lisbon It’s a fantastic /
terrifying place for families to spend their holiday.
4 The smell in the room was delicious / disgusting so we
couldn’t stay in there
5 The new stadium is brilliant / massive To be honest,
I think it’s too big
6 I read a terrific / terrifying story about a man who got
attacked by lions It sounded really scary
7 Why did you buy that silly souvenir? It’s a brilliant /
ridiculous waste of money.
7
Task 2
Complete the sentences with the correct form of these words
crash drop find get hang have stare yell
8 We were at them across the street, but they
still didn’t hear us
9 When I was younger, I used to out with some
kids from the next street
10 I to laugh when the dog ran off with my
dad’s shoe
11 If you at this picture for a while, it looks
three dimensional
12 It took me a long time to my head around
what the man was saying
13 I my phone earlier, but luckily the screen
didn’t break
14 My grandmother has been driving for sixty years and she’s
never the car.
15 I can never my way around new places I
always seem to get lost
UNIT 2: LANGUAGE TEST B
Trang 30USE OF ENGLISH
Task 1
Complete the second sentence so that that is has a similar meaning to the fi rst sentence using the word given
Do not change the word given Use between two and fi ve words, including the word given
31 Louise can complete a Rubik’s Cube quicker than anyone I know.
AS
No one I know can complete a Rubik’s Cube Louise
32 Vanessa didn’t use to be so relaxed.
THAN
33 The horror fi lm terrifi ed me a lot more than I expected.
MUCH
The horror fi lm was than I expected
34 My parent’s apartment isn’t big enough for a party.
TOO
My parent’s apartment have a party
35 I thought this fi lm would be more ridiculous than it is.
AS
This fi lm I thought it would be
36 I haven’t seen many pieces of art that are more brilliant.
ONE
It is pieces of art that I’ve ever seen
12
Task 2
Use the word given in capitals at the end of some lines to form a word that fi ts in the gap in the same line
Mysterious crop circles
Crop circles are large patterns of circles which have been made in fi elds The (37) LARGE
ones can be hundreds of metres long Despite reports of crop circles for hundreds of years, weirdly,
many more started to appear in the 1970s and it’s not (38) that no one understood SURPRISE
what had caused them It was clear that something had fl attened the grass, but (39) FORTUNE
the cause was not always clear The circles tended to appear (40) , oft en during SUDDEN
the night, and no one saw them being made Many of the crop circles also had strange designs in
the middle of them Some people argued that fl ying saucers or alien spaceships were
(41) for these circular shapes However, the fact that crop circles oft en appeared RESPONSE
near roads and famous monuments made other people (42) They argued that, SUSPECT
in (43) , the circles were being made by humans This was confi rmed when, in the 1990s, REAL
two British men (44) admitted they had made them FINAL
8Total: 50
UNIT 2: LANGUAGE TEST B
Trang 31A They didn’t want to hurt my feelings.
B They wanted to look better in front of me.
C They were trying to make me nervous.
D They were trying to avoid punishment.
E They thought it would embarrass me.
F They thought they were being funny.
G They wanted to avoid an argument.
H They didn’t want to make me worried.
You are going to listen to a recording about being honest
Listen to the whole recording once Then you will hear the
recording again with pauses for you to write down what
you hear Make sure you spell the words correctly
10
UNIT 2: SKILLS TEST A
Trang 32Task 1
Read the article and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fi ts best according to the text
11 How did the writer feel about the book at their grandparents’ house?
A They thought it was terrible.
B It used to give them a headache.
C They used to get excited about reading it.
D They didn’t like it as much as the encyclopaedia.
12 What does the writer say about Nostradamus?
A He only made predictions about medicine.
B He talked mainly about the bad side of things.
C He became famous for being a doctor.
D His predictions have only just become popular.
13 According to the writer, what is the problem with Nostradamus’ predictions?
A Nobody likes reading them because they are poems.
B Most people fi nd it diffi cult to read them because they are
in French
C We don’t always know what Nostradamus wanted to say.
D We don’t know whether they are accurate or not.
14 What does the writer think about the disappearances in the Bermuda Triangle?
A It’s not unusual for planes to have communications
problems
B There’s probably a good explanation for many of them.
C The newspapers have invented the stories about them to
sell more
D It’s surprising there aren’t more of them.
15 According to the writer, what is unusual about the Nazca Lines?
A They can only be seen properly from the air.
B They were made from stones and sand brought from
many kilometres away
C The lines in the ground are so straight.
D A large amount of eff ort was needed to make them.
16 What does the writer say about the Loch Ness monster?
A Sightings of it have been bad for tourism.
B Nobody had heard of it until the 1930s.
C Photographs of it were found to be true.
D People are still keen to prove its existence.
12
Task 2
Read the article again and answer the questions in your own words
17 How do many people feel about Nostradamus’ predictions nowadays?
18 When were the fi rst newspaper stories about the Bermuda Triangle published?
19 How long are some of the Nazca Lines?
20 When did stories of the Loch Ness monster fi rst appear?
8Total: 50
UNIT 2: SKILLS TEST A
Trang 33Unexplained Mysteries?
When I was a kid, my grandparents had an awesome
book full of unexplained mysteries Whenever I
went to their house, I couldn’t wait to get that book
out It was like an encyclopaedia full of weird and
wonderful stories There were people who could talk
to ghosts, alien visitors from outer space and strange
symbols from the past It was so hard to get my
head around these stories, but that was what I loved
about them! In this article, I’m going to briefl y talk
about my favourite unexplained mysteries from that
wonderful book …
1 Nostradamus
Nostradamus was a French doctor who lived in
the fi rst half of the sixteenth century He became
famous because people believed he could tell what
would happen in the future His predictions covered
everything from diseases to inventions to the end of
the world, but they were mostly negative! Although
his predictions have been popular for hundreds of
years, people tend to be more suspicious about them
these days The problem is that because they are
poems, it’s often unclear what Nostradamus actually
meant They were also written in French and some
of the translations have been less than accurate
For those reasons, critics argue that Nostradamus’
poems can in fact be used to predict almost any event.
2 The Bermuda Triangle
The Bermuda Triangle is the name given in 1964
to a large area in the shape of a triangle which
connects Bermuda, Florida and Puerto Rico Strange
stories appeared in the press in the 1940s after
several aeroplanes went missing on a routine fl ight
One particular magazine article connected their
disappearance with other unexplained mysteries in
that area Over the years, similar stories of missing
ships and aircraft appeared in the news, talking about
communications equipment which mysteriously
stopped working and ships found without any sign of
life Some people claimed that the pilots and sailors
3 Nazca Lines
This collection of lines and designs covers a large area in the south of Peru Historians believed they were created by the Nazca civilization which lived there until about 1,500 years ago, although it is now thought that some of the lines may be even older
Due to their size, they cannot be seen easily from the ground This meant that many of them were undiscovered until the 1920s when people started
to use aeroplanes to investigate the area What they discovered were straight lines stretching for tens of kilometres and designs of animals They had all been built very carefully by removing stones and sand from the ground The lack of wind and rain has meant that the lines have survived for many years There are many theories about why people put some eff ort into making them However, the strangest one has to be that they were runways for aliens No one knows the real reason for the Nazca Lines, but it’s unlikely they were constructed by aliens.
4 Loch Ness Monster
The story of the Loch Ness Monster is famous all over the world It’s especially popular with the hundreds
of thousands of tourists to Loch Ness annually
Many hope to spot Nessie, the legendary creature said to live in the lake (‘loch’ is the Scottish word for
‘lake’) Locals had been talking about a sea monster inhabiting the waters for hundreds of years In fact, a sixth-century story talks about a man being attacked by a creature from the water However, in the 1930s, newspaper articles about recent sightings
of Nessie attracted global interest Photographs of this mysterious animal were published and one investigator even claimed to have found footprints
However, none of this was found to be true Despite this, there are several reported sightings every year
Scientists haven’t given up either They’ve used all sorts of technology such as satellites and underwater sensors to try to locate Nessie Sadly, however, there’s still no evidence that she actually exists.
UNIT 2: SKILLS TEST A
Trang 34A They found it very funny.
B They wanted me to have a good opinion of them.
C They hoped to make me feel embarrassed.
D They wanted to make me feel guilty.
E They didn’t want me to be disappointed.
F They were afraid of causing anxiety.
G They were afraid of what would happen.
H They were trying to make me scared.
You are going to listen to a recording about being honest
Listen to the whole recording once Then you will hear the
recording again with pauses for you to write down what
you hear Make sure you spell the words correctly
10
UNIT 2: SKILLS TEST B
Trang 35Task 1
Read the article and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fi ts best according to the text
11 What does the writer say about the book at their grandparents’ house?
A The stories in it were diffi cult to understand.
B Some of the stories in it were terrifying.
C It wasn’t as good as the encyclopaedia.
D He didn’t read it very frequently.
12 Why do fewer people believe Nostradamus’ predictions these days?
A They were written by a doctor.
B They only involved negative things.
C They aren’t easy to understand.
D They don’t predict enough events.
13 What was interesting about the disappearance of the aeroplanes in the Bermuda Triangle?
A It was the fi rst time this had happened there.
B Other strange things had happened there before.
C There were problems with the communications
equipment before it happened
D Nobody had any explanation for it.
14 What makes the writer think there is a natural explanation for the Bermuda Triangle?
A There is no evidence that ghosts or aliens exist.
B There is a great deal of bad weather in the area.
C There are more accidents in other places.
D There is evidence for kidnappings in the area.
15 How do historians think the Nazca Lines were created?
A by aeroplanes fl ying over the area
B by animals leaving trails on the ground
C by the eff ect of the wind and rain
D by the removal of objects from the surface of the earth
16 What does the writer say about the Loch Ness Monster?
A No one had heard of it until the 1930s.
B It’s one of the reasons the area is so popular.
C Scientists are no longer interested in fi nding it.
D The footprints are good evidence that it exists.
12
Task 2
Read the article again and answer the questions in your own words
17 What is the problem with translations of Nostradamus’ predictions?
18 What were the aeroplanes doing in the Bermuda Triangle?
19 When were most of the Nazca Lines created?
20 How many people go to Loch Ness every year?
8Total: 50
UNIT 2: SKILLS TEST B
Trang 36Unexplained Mysteries?
When I was a kid, my grandparents had an awesome
book full of unexplained mysteries Whenever I
went to their house, I couldn’t wait to get that book
out It was like an encyclopaedia full of weird and
wonderful stories There were people who could talk
to ghosts, alien visitors from outer space and strange
symbols from the past It was so hard to get my
head around these stories, but that was what I loved
about them! In this article, I’m going to briefl y talk
about my favourite unexplained mysteries from that
wonderful book …
1 Nostradamus
Nostradamus was a French doctor who lived in
the fi rst half of the sixteenth century He became
famous because people believed he could tell what
would happen in the future His predictions covered
everything from diseases to inventions to the end of
the world, but they were mostly negative! Although
his predictions have been popular for hundreds of
years, people tend to be more suspicious about them
these days The problem is that because they are
poems, it’s often unclear what Nostradamus actually
meant They were also written in French and some
of the translations have been less than accurate
For those reasons, critics argue that Nostradamus’
poems can in fact be used to predict almost any event.
2 The Bermuda Triangle
The Bermuda Triangle is a large area in the shape
of a triangle which connects Bermuda, Florida and
Puerto Rico Strange stories appeared in the press
in the 1940s after several aeroplanes went missing
on a routine fl ight One particular magazine
article connected their disappearance with other
unexplained mysteries in that area Over the years,
similar stories of missing ships and aircraft appeared
in the news, talking about communications
equipment which mysteriously stopped working
and ships found without any sign of life Some
people claimed that the pilots and sailors had been
kidnapped by aliens No one knows the truth, but
it’s important to remember that a lot of ships sail
through the Bermuda Triangle so it’s not surprising
that there are more accidents than in other places
The area is also particularly aff ected by storms and
hurricanes, so we should probably look for a more
natural explanation before blaming aliens or ghosts.
3 Nazca Lines
This collection of lines and designs covers a large area in the south of Peru Historians believed they were created by the Nazca civilization which lived there until about 1,500 years ago, although it is now thought that some of the lines may be even older
Due to their size, they cannot be seen easily from the ground This meant that many of them were undiscovered until the 1920s when people started
to use aeroplanes to investigate the area What they discovered were straight lines stretching for tens of kilometres and designs of animals They had all been built very carefully by removing stones and sand from the ground The lack of wind and rain has meant that the lines have survived for many years There are many theories about why people put some eff ort into making them However, the strangest one has to be that they were runways fo r aliens No one knows the real reason for the Nazca Lines, but it’s unlikely they were constructed by aliens.
4 Loch Ness Monster
The story of the Loch Ness Monster is famous all over the world It’s especially popular with the hundreds
of thousands of tourists to Loch Ness annually
Many hope to spot Nessie, the legendary creature said to live in the lake (‘loch’ is the Scottish word for
‘lake’) Locals had been talking about a sea monster inhabiting the waters for hundreds of years In fact, a sixth-century story talks about a man being attacked by a creature from the water However, in the 1930s, newspaper articles about recent sightings
of Nessie attracted global interest Photographs of this mysterious animal were published and one investigator even claimed to have found footprints
However, none of this was found to be true Despite this, there are several reported sightings every year
Scientists haven’t given up either They’ve used all sorts of technology such as satellites and underwater sensors to try to locate Nessie Sadly, however, there’s still no evidence that she actually exists.
UNIT 2: SKILLS TEST B
Trang 37Task 1
Choose the correct words to complete the sentences
16 I’m sure Harris will win / will be winning the match
She’s playing much better than Singh
17 My uncle stays / is staying with us this weekend.
18 I can’t see you next week because I will study / will be studying for my exams.
19 I don’t think the UK is winning / will win the song contest
this year
20 He won’t be / isn’t happy when he finds out that you
have lost his book
21 The bus is about / likely to go The driver is shutting
the doors
22 By the time my dad gets / will get home, we’ll all be in bed.
23 Tina’s plane was due / likely to land at seven o’clock so it
24 There was big queue for the cinema that
we decided to leave it
25 There’s time to finish this game of Scrabble
this evening Let’s finish it tomorrow
26 Don’t put milk in my tea I prefer it to
29 Raynor has got of responsibility in his job
I don’t know how he copes
30 If you think we’ve made sandwiches,
we don’t need to make any more
VOCABULARY
Task 1
Choose the correct words to complete the sentences
1 The number of British people choosing not to eat meat
has been increasing / gaining in recent years.
2 We need to make sure / sense that the food is
properly cooked
3 Some countries don’t have enough water and they
have to import / export it from abroad.
4 I like to do / make my bit for the environment so I recycle
as much as possible
5 We’ve had a fantastic tomato crop / growth this year
thanks to the good weather
6 When oranges are in season / time, I like to make my
9 It’s important for consumers / users to think carefully
about the things they buy
9
Task 2
Complete the sentences with the correct form of
these words
chop clean die get kill throw
10 We need to up this mess before dad
gets home
11 A big poster would be the best way to our
message across
12 Sea pollution is likely to off many species of
animals in the near future
13 I never use this CD player so I’m it away.
14 The old tree in our garden was dying so we
it down
15 A lot of sea creatures out if we keep
polluting the oceans
UNIT 3: LANGUAGE TEST A
Trang 38USE OF ENGLISH
Task 1
Read the text and complete the gaps with one word only
The end of food waste?
There are (31) a lot of advantages to buying your food from a supermarket that it is diffi cult to avoid
them You can get cheap products all year round with everything you need in one place Many of us couldn’t do
(32) them However, this convenience has a price, which is a huge amount of food waste The prices
are (33) low that consumers buy much more than they need In fact, the average US consumer
(34) waste around twenty percent of all the food they buy Supermarkets also throw (35)
large amounts of food which they haven’t been able to sell At the same time, many people in the world don’t have
(36) to eat Not only that, but food oft en has too (37) packaging, which is bad for the
environment Not surprisingly, some people have been arguing that supermarkets should do more to reduce food waste
Finally, it seems that the supermarkets have listened One supermarket is due (38) start using an app
which will help it reduce its waste It tells the supermarket how much food is left which can’t be sold This food will then
be given to charities who can (39) sure that it gets to the people who need it most If the app is a success,
it (40) likely that other supermarkets will also work to reduce food waste
10
Task 2
Read the article and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fi ts each gap
The Cantabrian brown bear
The brown bear is found across North America, Europe and Asia They can live in all sorts of places from the edges
of deserts to mountains if they have (41) food and somewhere to rest during the day Although they are not
endangered, they have (42) in some parts of the world The Cantabrian brown bear is one group that came very
close to disappearing The Cantabrian bear lives in the mountains near the north coast of Spain, which has been their
(43) habitat for centuries As a result of hunting and construction, be ar numbers decreased rapidly during the
twentieth century (44) the 1970s, there were only about eighty bears left in the region (45) , they were made a
protected species in 1973 Since then, the number of bears in the region has (46) to around 200 The Cantabrian bear
is still in danger, but charities are trying to get the message (47) that they need to be protected They say we can’t
do (48) them because they help to control other wild animal populations Working with local governments, they have
created conservation areas, which provide a (49) home for the bears They are also trying to convince local farmers
that they can live together This means that the Cantabrian bear population is very (50) to grow in the future
41 A too B such C enough D so
42 A chopped down B died out C killed off D thrown away
43 A natural B ordinary C physical D usual
44 A At B By C When D Since
45 A Although B Despite C However D In order that
46 A built B grown up C increased D raised
47 A through B up C over D across
48 A away B to C with D without
49 A safe B sure C clear D pure
50 A about B due C likely D possibly
10Total: 50
UNIT 3: LANGUAGE TEST A
Trang 39Task 1
Choose the correct words to complete the sentences
16 You should hurry up or you will miss / will be missing
the bus
17 My brother cooks / is cooking dinner for my family
this evening
18 Mum said she will work / will be working late this
evening so she can’t pick you up from swimming
19 I strongly believe that we are finding / will find a solution
to climate change in the near future
20 She won’t want / isn’t wanting to go to the party when
she hears that Paula isn’t going
21 You’ll be exhausted by the time you will finish / finish
painting your room
22 The advertisement says the band is likely / due to start
at eight o’clock so we should get there by seven thirty
23 I was about / likely to leave the house when I remembered
I didn’t have my keys
24 I think we’ve got chairs for everyone so we
don’t need any more
25 It was hot day that we could hardly move.
26 The children were excited that they couldn’t sit still!
27 There was of rain that they had to cancel the football match
28 Can you make some more sandwiches? That’s
for all of our guests
29 I don’t think it’s good for children to spend
time watching the TV
30 We had problems with the internet that
my parents decided to change provider
VOCABULARY
Task 1
Choose the correct words to complete the sentences
1 Strawberries are in time / season so they’re quite cheap
6 My school is going to gain / increase the number of new
students this year
7 We can do / make without food, but we need to find
chop clean die get kill throw
10 We have to up the kitchen before Mum
gets home
11 It’s difficult to your message across if no
one wants to listen to you
12 This species is out because too many
people are hunting it
13 Right now, rising sea temperatures off
plant and animal life in our oceans
14 I’m away this magazine because I’ve
Trang 40USE OF ENGLISH
Task 1
Read the text and complete the gaps with one word only
Carrier b ags
Carrier bags are those plastic bags which you are given in the supermarket A lot of people can’t imagine having to
do (31) them Aft er all, how else are we supposed to carry our shopping home? However, carrier bags
are a huge problem for the environment In fact, they are (32) a big problem that some governments
have decided to take serious action The main problem is that they are very diffi cult to get rid of Aft er we’ve thrown
them (33) , they can stay in the ground for up to a thousand years The other problem is that we use
so (34) of them It is thought that around one trillion carrier bags are used every year! A lot of them
can also be found in the sea and, as a result, millions of sea birds and fi sh are killed off (35) year People
started to protest about the dangers of plastic bags in the late 1990s, but it took several years to get their message
(36) A few years later, some governments made shopkeepers charge customers for their bags
They wanted people to recycle old bags or make (37) with paper ones This did have an impact and
people started using fewer carrier bags However, the change wasn’t big (38) for some governments
In order to solve the problem, they decided to ban carrier bags altogether Their objective is to (39) sure
that carrier bags stop being a danger to life on Earth They argue that we have to change our habits now, before it’s
(40) late Let’s hope more countries follow their example
10
Task 2
Read the article and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fi ts each gap
The return of the lynx
The lynx is a type of wild cat which lives in various parts of Europe and Asia They are most (41) to be found in
mountainous, forested areas There are only around 50,000 of them in the world, but people think the number is (42)
Sadly, the lynx (43) in the UK around 1,300 years ago, but now some scientists want to bring them back These
scientists argue that the UK is a(n) (44) habitat for the lynx They also say that it would have a positive (45) on
the British countryside One problem in the UK is that there are (46) wild deer, which eat all the plants and trees As
a result, forests aren’t growing (47) and other animals which depend on the forest can’t survive Some bigger lynx
hunt deer so nature would provide a solution to this problem (48) , some farmers do not agree that it would be good
to bring back the lynx They say that the countryside has changed a lot over the last 1,300 years For example, there are
a (49) more sheep than there used to be and they would make an easy meal for a hungry lynx While some people
would like to see the return of the lynx, those farmers are waiting (50) to see what the government decides For
them, its return could cost a large amount of money
41 A about B due C likely D probably
42 A going B increasing C growing up D raising
43 A chopped down B cleaned up C died out D killed off
44 A natural B physical C ordinary D usual
45 A bang B crash C hit D impact
46 A enough B so C too many D too much
47 A too quickly B quickly enough C enough quickly D so quickly
48 A Because B As a result C While D However
49 A great B lot C many D much
50 A anxiously B badly C luckily D truthfully
10Total: 50
UNIT 3: LANGUAGE TEST B