GRE physics test practice book

GRE Physics Test Practice Book GRE ® Physics Test Practice Book This practice book contains n one actual, full length GRE® Physics Test n test taking strategies Become familiar with n test structure a[.]

GRE ® Physics Test

Practice Book

This practice book contains

n test-taking strategies

Become familiar with

n test structure and content

n test instructions and answering procedures

Compare your practice test results with the performance of those who

took the test at a GRE administration.

www.ets.org/gre

Overview 3

Test Content 3

Preparing for the Test 4

Test-Taking Strategies 4

What Your Scores Mean 5

Taking the Practice Test 5

Scoring the Practice Test 5

Evaluating Your Performance 5

Practice Test 7

Worksheet for Scoring the Practice Test 87

Score Conversion Table 88

Answer Sheet 89

Test takers with disabilities or health-related needs who need test preparation materials in

an alternate format should contact the ETS Office of Disability Services at stassd@ets.org For additional information, visit www.ets.org/gre/disabilities

GRE® Physics Test Practice Book 3 | Page

Overview

100 multiple-choice questions Testing time is

2 hours and 50 minutes; there are no

separately-timed sections.

This publication provides a comprehensive

overview of the GRE Physics Test to help you get

ready for test day It is designed to help you:

• Understand what is being tested

• Gain familiarity with the question types

• Review test-taking strategies

• Understand scoring

• Practice taking the test

To learn more about the GRE Subject Tests,

visit www.ets.org/gre.

Test Content

The test consists of approximately 100

five-choice questions, some of which are based on

such materials as diagrams, graphs, experimental

data and descriptions of physical situations The

aim of the test is to determine the extent of

the test takers’ grasp of fundamental principles

and their ability to apply these principles in

the solution of problems Most test questions

can be answered on the basis of a mastery of

the first three years of undergraduate physics

The test questions are constructed to simplify

mathematical manipulations As a result, neither

calculators nor tables of logarithms are needed

If the solution to a problem requires the use of

logarithms, the necessary values are included

with the question

The International System (SI) of units is used

predominantly in the test A table of information

representing various physical constants and a few

conversion factors among SI units is presented

in the test book Whenever necessary, additional

values of physical constants are printed with the

text of the question.

The approximate percentages of the test

on the major content topics have been set

by the committee of examiners, with input

from a nationwide survey of undergraduate physics curricula The percentages reflect the committee’s determination of the relative emphasis placed on each topic in a typical undergraduate program These percentages are given below along with the major subtopics included in each content category.

Nearly all the questions in the test will relate

to material in this listing; however, there may

be occasional questions on other topics not explicitly listed here.

I Classical Mechanics (20%)

(such as kinematics, Newton’s laws, work and energy, oscillatory motion, rotational motion about a fixed axis, dynamics of systems of particles, central forces and celestial mechanics, three-dimensional particle dynamics, Lagrangian and Hamiltonian formalism, non-inertial reference frames, elementary topics in fluid dynamics)

II Electromagnetism (18%)

(such as electrostatics, currents and DC circuits, magnetic fields in free space, Lorentz force, induction, Maxwell’s equations and their applications, electromagnetic waves, AC circuits, magnetic and electric fields in matter)

III Optics and Wave Phenomena (9%)

(such as wave properties, superposition, interference, diffraction, geometrical optics, polarization, Doppler effect)

IV Thermodynamics and Statistical Mechanics (10%)

(such as the laws of thermodynamics, thermodynamic processes, equations

of state, ideal gases, kinetic theory, ensembles, statistical concepts and calculation of thermodynamic quantities, thermal expansion and heat transfer)

V Quantum Mechanics (12%)

(such as fundamental concepts, solutions

of the Schrödinger equation [including square wells, harmonic oscillators and hydrogenic atoms], spin, angular

VI Atomic Physics (10%)

(such as properties of electrons, Bohr

model, energy quantization, atomic

structure, atomic spectra, selection rules,

black-body radiation, x-rays, atoms in

electric and magnetic fields)

VII Special Relativity (6%)

(such as introductory concepts, time

dilation, length contraction, simultaneity,

energy and momentum, four-vectors and

Lorentz transformation, velocity addition)

VIII Laboratory Methods (6%)

(such as data and error analysis,

electronics, instrumentation, radiation

detection, counting statistics, interaction

of charged particles with matter, lasers

and optical interferometers, dimensional

analysis, fundamental applications of

probability and statistics)

IX Specialized Topics (9%)

Nuclear and Particle physics (such as

nuclear properties, radioactive decay,

fission and fusion, reactions, fundamental

properties of elementary particles),

Condensed Matter (such as crystal

structure, x-ray diffraction, thermal

properties, electron theory of metals,

semiconductors, superconductors),

Miscellaneous (such as astrophysics,

mathematical methods, computer

applications)

Preparing for the Test

GRE Subject Test questions are designed to

measure skills and knowledge gained over a long

expected to be familiar with the content

of every question

• Become familiar with the types of questions in the GRE Physics Test, paying special attention to the directions If you thoroughly understand the directions before you take the test, you will have more time during the test to focus on the questions themselves

Test-Taking Strategies

The questions in the practice test illustrate the types of multiple-choice questions in the test When you take the actual test, you will mark your answers on a separate machine-scorable answer sheet

The following are some general test-taking strategies you may want to consider

• Read the test directions carefully, and work as rapidly as you can without being careless For each question, choose the best answer from the available options

• All questions are of equal value; do not waste time pondering individual questions you find extremely difficult or unfamiliar

• You may want to work through the test quickly, first answering only the questions about which you feel confident, then going back and answering questions that require more thought, and concluding with the most difficult questions if there is time.

• If you decide to change an answer, make sure you completely erase it and fill in the oval corresponding to your desired answer

• Your score will be determined by the

GRE® Physics Test Practice Book 5 | Page

to guess at an answer than not to respond

at all.

• Record all answers on your answer sheet

Answers recorded in your test book will

not be counted

• Do not wait until the last few minutes of

a testing session to record answers on your

answer sheet

What Your Scores Mean

The number of questions you answered correctly

on the whole test (total correct score) is

converted to the total reported scaled score

This conversion ensures that a scaled score

reported for any edition of a GRE Physics Test is

comparable to the same scaled score earned on

any other edition of the test Thus, equal scaled

scores on a particular test indicate essentially

equal levels of performance regardless of the test

edition taken

GRE Physics Test total scores are reported on

a 200 to 990 score scale in ten-point increments

Test scores should be compared only with

other scores on the Physics Test For example,

a 780 on the Physics Test is not equivalent to a

780 on the Chemistry Test.

Taking the Practice Test

The practice test begins on page 7 The total

time that you should allow for this practice test

is 2 hours and 50 minutes An answer sheet is

provided for you to mark your answers to the

test questions

It is best to take this practice test under timed

conditions Find a quiet place to take the test

and make sure you have a minimum of 2 hours

and 50 minutes available

To simulate how the administration will be

conducted at the test center, print the answer

sheet (pages 89 and 90) Then go to the back

cover of the test book (page 86) and follow the

instructions for completing the identification areas

of the answer sheet When you are ready to begin

the test, note the time and begin marking your

answers on the answer sheet Stop working on the test when 2 hours and 50 minutes have elapsed.

Scoring the Practice Test

The worksheet on page 87 lists the correct answers to the questions The “Correct Response” columns are provided for you to mark those questions for which you chose the correct answer Mark each question that you answer correctly Then, add up your correct answers and enter your total number of correct answers in the space labeled “Total Correct” at the bottom of the page Next, use the “Total Score” conversion tables on page 88 to find the corresponding scaled score For example, suppose you chose the correct answers to 67 of the questions on the test The

“Total Correct” entry in the conversion table of

67 shows that your total scaled score is 820.

Evaluating Your Performance

Now that you have scored your test, you may wish to compare your performance with the performance of others who took this test

The data in the worksheet on page 87 are based on the performance of a sample of the test takers who took the GRE Physics Test in the United States

The numbers in the column labeled “P+”

on the worksheet indicate the percentages of examinees in this sample who answered each question correctly You may use these numbers as

a guide for evaluating your performance on each test question

Interpretive data based on the scores earned

by a recent cohort of test takers are available on

the GRE website at www.ets.org/gre/subject/

scores/understand The interpretive data show,

for selected scaled score, the percentage of test takers who received lower scores To compare yourself with this population, look at the percentage next to the scaled score you earned

on the practice test Note that these interpretive data are updated annually and reported on GRE score reports

exactly the same as those you will encounter

at a test center It is impossible to predict how

different test-taking conditions will affect test

performance, and this is only one factor that

may account for differences between your

practice test scores and your actual test scores

who took GRE Physics Test, however, you will be able to determine your strengths and weaknesses and can then plan a program of study to prepare yourself for taking the GRE Physics Test under standard conditions

Copyright © 2013 by Educational Testing Service All rights reserved

GRE, GRADUATE RECORD EXAMINATIONS, ETS, EDUCATIONAL TESTING

SERVICE and the ETS logos are registered trademarks of Educational Testing Service

FORM GR1777

PHYSICS TEST

77

TABLE OF INFORMATION

-3-This test starts on page 4

This test starts on page 10

PHYSICS TEST Time—170 minutes

100 Questions

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or

completions Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding space on the answer sheet

twice the mass of object A, and the acceleration

of object B is twice that of object A Which of

the following is true of forces F A and F B ?

2 Two objects sliding on a frictionless surface,

as represented above, collide and stick together How much kinetic energy is converted to heatduring the collision?

(A) 1

9 J (B) 1

6 J (C) 1

2 J (D) 3

4 J (E) 5

B A

F = F

PHYSICS TEST

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or

completions Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding space on the answer sheet

1 A net force F A acts on object A, and a net force

acts on object B The mass of object B is

twice the mass of object A, and the acceleration

of object B is twice that of object A Which of

2 Two objects sliding on a frictionless surface,

as represented above, collide and stick together How much kinetic energy is converted to heat during the collision?

4 J (E) 5

6 J

-5-11

3 Two simple pendulums A and B consist

of identical masses suspended from strings

of length L A and L B , respectively The two

pendulums oscillate in equal gravitational fields

If the period of pendulum B is twice the period

of pendulum A, which of the following is true

of the lengths of the two pendulums?

4 For the circuit shown in the figure above, what is

the current i through the 2 W resistor?

5 By definition, the electric displacement current

through a surface S is proportional to the

(A) magnetic flux through S

(B) rate of change of the magnetic flux through S

(C) time integral of the magnetic flux through S

(D) electric flux through S

(E) rate of change of the electric flux through S

6 The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave

of wave number k and angular frequency w is

given by E = E0(e x + e y) sin(kz - wt) Which of

the following gives the direction of the associated

magnetic field B ? (A) e z

(B) -e x + e y

(C) -e x - e y (D) e x - e z (E) e y - e z

7 Which of the following is true about any system that undergoes a reversible thermodynamicprocess?

(A) There are no changes in the internal energy

(E) The net work done by the system is zero

8 For which of the following thermodynamic processes is the increase in the internal energy

of an ideal gas equal to the heat added to the gas? (A) Constant temperature

(B) Constant volume (C) Constant pressure (D) Adiabatic (E) Cyclic

3 Two simple pendulums A and B consist

of identical masses suspended from strings

of length L A and L B , respectively The two

pendulums oscillate in equal gravitational fields

If the period of pendulum B is twice the period

of pendulum A, which of the following is true

of the lengths of the two pendulums?

4 For the circuit shown in the figure above, what is

the current i through the 2 W resistor?

5 By definition, the electric displacement current

through a surface S is proportional to the

(A) magnetic flux through S

(B) rate of change of the magnetic flux through S

(C) time integral of the magnetic flux through S

(D) electric flux through S

6 The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave

of wave number k and angular frequency w is

the following gives the direction of the associated

magnetic field B ?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

7 Which of the following is true about any system that undergoes a reversible thermodynamic process?

(A) There are no changes in the internal energy

of the system

(E) The net work done by the system is zero

8 For which of the following thermodynamic processes is the increase in the internal energy

of an ideal gas equal to the heat added to the gas? (A) Constant temperature

(B) Constant volume (C) Constant pressure (D) Adiabatic (E) Cyclic

-7-13

9 The root-mean-square speed of molecules in an

10 Light of variable frequency n shines on the metal

surface of a photoelectric tube Einstein’s theory

of the photoelectric effect predicts that the

(A) work function of the metal is proportional

(D) potential difference necessary to stop the

emitted electrons is a linear function of

the frequency above the threshold frequency

(E) potential difference necessary to stop the

emitted electrons is equal to the work

function

11 Characteristic X rays, appearing as sharp lines

on a continuous background, are produced

when high-energy electrons bombard a metal

target Which of the following processes results

in the characteristic X rays?

(B) Electrons colliding with phonons in the metal

(C) Electrons filling inner shell vacancies that are

created in the metal atoms

(D) Electrons combining with protons to form

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

13 A particle of mass m is confined inside a

one-dimensional box (infinite square well) of

length a The particle’s ground state energy is

which of the following?

=

14 The Planck length is the only combination of

the factors G (Newton’s gravitational constant),

light) that has units of length Which of the following gives the Planck length?

= 2

surface of a photoelectric tube Einstein’s theory

of the photoelectric effect predicts that the

(A) work function of the metal is proportional

(D) potential difference necessary to stop the

emitted electrons is a linear function of

the frequency above the threshold frequency

(E) potential difference necessary to stop the

emitted electrons is equal to the work

function

11 Characteristic X rays, appearing as sharp lines

on a continuous background, are produced

when high-energy electrons bombard a metal

target Which of the following processes results

in the characteristic X rays?

(B) Electrons colliding with phonons in the metal

(C) Electrons filling inner shell vacancies that are

created in the metal atoms

(D) Electrons combining with protons to form

neutrons

12 A single-electron atom has the electron in the

A = 2 state The number of allowed values of

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

13 A particle of mass m is confined inside a

one-dimensional box (infinite square well) of

length a The particle’s ground state energy is

which of the following?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

14 The Planck length is the only combination of

the factors G (Newton’s gravitational constant),

= (Planck’s constant / 2π ), and c (the speed of

light) that has units of length Which of the following gives the Planck length?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

-9-15

15 The speed of light inside of a nonmagnetic

dielectric material with a dielectric constant

16 Fermat’s principle of ray optics states, “A ray of

light follows the path between two points which

requires the least time.” This principle can be

used to derive which of the following?

I Snell’s law of refraction

II The law of reflection

III Rayleigh’s criterion for resolution

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and II

(E) II and III

17 Consider two identical systems, 1 and 2, each

consisting of a planet in circular orbit about a

much heavier star For system 1 the radius of

the orbit is a, and for system 2 the radius of

the orbit is 4a Which of the following gives

T

T =

18 Two identical satellites, A and B, are in circular orbits around Earth The orbital radius of A is twice that of B Which of the following gives the ratio of the angular momentum of A to the angular momentum of B ?

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 2(D) 12(E) 12

19 A 10 kg box slides horizontally without friction

at a speed of 1 m/s At one point, a constantforce is applied to the box in the direction of itsmotion The box travels 5 m with the constant force applied The force is then removed, leaving the box with a speed of 2 m/s Which of the following gives the magnitude of the applied force?

(A) 1 N (B) 2 N (C) 3 N (D) 4 N (E) 5 N

20 What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the

center of a circular conducting loop of radius a that is carrying current I ?

(A) 4pm0Ia2

(B) m0Ia

(C) 0 (D)

2o

I a m

4

o I a

m p

15 The speed of light inside of a nonmagnetic

dielectric material with a dielectric constant

16 Fermat’s principle of ray optics states, “A ray of

light follows the path between two points which

requires the least time.” This principle can be

used to derive which of the following?

I Snell’s law of refraction

II The law of reflection

III Rayleigh’s criterion for resolution

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and II

(E) II and III

17 Consider two identical systems, 1 and 2, each

consisting of a planet in circular orbit about a

much heavier star For system 1 the radius of

the orbit is a, and for system 2 the radius of

the orbit is 4a Which of the following gives

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 2 1(D)

2 (E)

19 A 10 kg box slides horizontally without friction

at a speed of 1 m/s At one point, a constant force is applied to the box in the direction of its motion The box travels 5 m with the constant force applied The force is then removed, leaving the box with a speed of 2 m/s Which of the following gives the magnitude of the applied force?

(A) 1 N (B) 2 N (C) 3 N (D) 4 N (E) 5 N

20 What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the

center of a circular conducting loop of radius a that is carrying current I ?

-11-17

21 Let w p, w d, and w a be the cyclotron

frequencies of protons, deuterons, and alpha

particles, respectively, in the same magnetic

field The frequencies are related by which

of the following? (Assume that the particle

masses are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4.)

22 The emission spectrum of the doubly ionized

lithium atom Li++ (Z = 3, A = 7) is identical

to that of a hydrogen atom in which all the

(E) increased by a factor of 81

23 In an atom of hydrogen, the electron is bound to

a proton In an atom of positronium, the electron

is bound to a positron instead of a proton Which

of the following gives the approximate Rydberg

constant for positronium? (For a nucleus of

infinite mass,

4

08

e

m e R

ch e

25 Consider a Hermitian operator ˆA with the

property Aˆ4 = Which of the following 1

is an allowed pair of eigenvalues of ˆA ?

(A) 0, 1 (B) 1, -1

2

p T m p

m

∫

of the following pairs of observables can be measured simultaneously with no restriction

on their precision?

(A) ˆxand pˆ(B) xˆ andTˆ

(C) ˆHand pˆ(D) ˆHandTˆ

m e e

R• = 2 3

0 0.0005R•

21 Let w p, w d , and w a be the cyclotron

frequencies of protons, deuterons, and alpha

particles, respectively, in the same magnetic

field The frequencies are related by which

of the following? (Assume that the particle

masses are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4.)

22 The emission spectrum of the doubly ionized

lithium atom Li++ (Z = 3, A = 7) is identical

to that of a hydrogen atom in which all the

(E) increased by a factor of 81

23 In an atom of hydrogen, the electron is bound to

a proton In an atom of positronium, the electron

is bound to a positron instead of a proton Which

of the following gives the approximate Rydberg

constant for positronium? (For a nucleus of

2 (B) 1 3(C)

2 5(D)

2 7(E)

of the following pairs of observables can be measured simultaneously with no restriction

on their precision?

(A) (B)

(C) H and pˆ (D) Hˆ

-13-19

27 Electromagnetic radiation emitted from a nucleus

is most likely to be in the form of

(A) gamma rays

(B) microwaves

(C) ultraviolet radiation

(D) visible light

(E) infrared radiation

28 A sample of nitrogen gas undergoes the cyclic thermodynamic process shown above Which of thefollowing gives the net heat transferred to the system

in one complete cycle 1 Æ 2 Æ 3 Æ 1 ?

(C) 40 J (D) 80 J (E) 180 J

1 Æ 2 Æ 3 Æ 1

27 Electromagnetic radiation emitted from a nucleus

is most likely to be in the form of

(A) gamma rays

(B) microwaves

(C) ultraviolet radiation

(D) visible light

(E) infrared radiation

28 A sample of nitrogen gas undergoes the cyclic thermodynamic process shown above Which of the following gives the net heat transferred to the system

(C) 40 J (D) 80 J (E) 180 J

-15-21

29 For an ideal gas, consider the three thermodynamic

processes—labeled 1, 2, and 3 —shown in the PV diagram

above Each process has the same initial state and the same final volume One process is adiabatic, one is isobaric, andone is isothermal Which of the following correctly identifies the three processes?

Adiabatic Isobaric Isothermal

29 For an ideal gas, consider the three thermodynamic

processes—labeled 1, 2, and 3 —shown in the PV diagram

above Each process has the same initial state and the same final volume One process is adiabatic, one is isobaric, and one is isothermal Which of the following correctly identifies the three processes?

-17-23

30 The driver of a police car hears an echo of the

car’s siren from a wall toward which the car is

moving with a speed of 3.5 m/s If the speed of

sound is 350 m/s and the frequency of the siren is

600 Hz, the driver hears the echo at a frequency

nearest to which of the following?

31 The first five harmonics produced by an organ

pipe open at both ends are 50 Hz, 100 Hz, 150 Hz,

200 Hz, and 250 Hz Which of the harmonics,

if any, will survive once the pipe is closed at

32 A refracting telescope consists of two converging

lenses separated by 100 cm The eye-piece lens

has a focal length of 20 cm The angular

magnification of the telescope is

33 The best type of laser with which to

do spectroscopy over a range of visible

(E) a neodymium-YAG laser

34 A rod measures 1.00 m in its rest system How fast must an observer move parallel to the rod

to measure its length to be 0.80 m?

(A) 0.50c (B) 0.60c (C) 0.70c (D) 0.80c (E) 0.90c

35 A particle decays in 2.0 ms in its rest frame If

the same particle moves at u = 0.60c in the lab

frame, how far will it travel in the lab before decaying?

(A) 150 m (B) 288 m (C) 360 m (D) 450 m (E) 750 m

36 The rest mass of a particle with total energy

5.0 GeV and momentum 4.9 GeV/c is

(B) 1 (C)

0

Q e

(D)

0

2

Q e

(E) 0

u = 0.60c

Q

e0 Q

2e0

30 The driver of a police car hears an echo of the

car’s siren from a wall toward which the car is

moving with a speed of 3.5 m/s If the speed of

sound is 350 m/s and the frequency of the siren is

600 Hz, the driver hears the echo at a frequency

nearest to which of the following?

31 The first five harmonics produced by an organ

pipe open at both ends are 50 Hz, 100 Hz, 150 Hz,

200 Hz, and 250 Hz Which of the harmonics,

if any, will survive once the pipe is closed at

32 A refracting telescope consists of two converging

lenses separated by 100 cm The eye-piece lens

has a focal length of 20 cm The angular

magnification of the telescope is

33 The best type of laser with which to

do spectroscopy over a range of visible

(E) a neodymium-YAG laser

34 A rod measures 1.00 m in its rest system How fast must an observer move parallel to the rod

to measure its length to be 0.80 m?

(A) 0.50c (B) 0.60c (C) 0.70c (D) 0.80c (E) 0.90c

35 A particle decays in 2.0 ms in its rest frame If

frame, how far will it travel in the lab before decaying?

(A) 150 m (B) 288 m (C) 360 m (D) 450 m (E) 750 m

36 The rest mass of a particle with total energy

(B) 1 (C) (D) (E) 0

-19-25

38 A point charge Q is placed at the center of a

hollow, conducting spherical shell of inner radius

charge q is placed on the conducting shell If the

electric potential is assumed to be 0 at infinity, the

magnitude of the electric potential at r, where

+

a < r < b

38 A point charge Q is placed at the center of a

hollow, conducting spherical shell of inner radius

charge q is placed on the conducting shell If the

electric potential is assumed to be 0 at infinity, the

magnitude of the electric potential at r, where

, is (A) 0

-21-27

39 The figure above shows three arrangements of

one electron (e) and two protons (p) Which of the following is true about the magnitude F of the net

electrostatic force acting on the electron due to the protons?

39 The figure above shows three arrangements of

one electron (e) and two protons (p) Which of the following is true about the magnitude F of the net

electrostatic force acting on the electron due to the protons?

(A) F 1 > F > F2 3 (B) F 1 = F 2 > F3 (C) F 1 > F > F3 2 (D) F 2 > F > F1 3 (E) F 2 > F > F3 1

-23-29

40 A series AC circuit with impedance Z consists

of resistor R, inductor L, and capacitor C,

as shown above The ideal emf source has

and the current is given by I = Imaxsin(w t -f)

What is the average power dissipated in the

circuit? (I rms is the root-mean-square current.)

40 A series AC circuit with impedance Z consists

of resistor R, inductor L, and capacitor C,

as shown above The ideal emf source has

a sinusoidal output given by e = e max sin wt ,

and the current is given by I = I max sin( wt - f).What is the average power dissipated in the

circuit? ( I rms is the root-mean-square current.)

-25-31

41 The quantum efficiency of a photon detector is 0.1

If 100 photons are sent into the detector, one after the other, the detector will detect photons

(A) exactly 10 times (B) an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation ofabout 0.1

(C) an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 1 (D) an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 2 (E) an average of 10 times, with an rms deviation of about 3

41 The quantum efficiency of a photon detector is 0.1

If 100 photons are sent into the detector, one after the other, the detector will detect photons

(A) exactly 10 times

-27-33

42 Two students perform an experiment in which

they drop a ball from rest from a known height

above the ground and measure the speed of

the ball just before it strikes the ground From

repeated measurement, the students estimate

the uncertainty in the measured speed of the

ball to be 10 percent Which of the following

gives the uncertainty in the kinetic energy of

the ball? (Assume the uncertainty in the ball’s

mass is negligibly small.)

43 Which of the following wave functions represents

a solution to the Schrödinger equation for an

electron in the 2s state of a hydrogen atom?

( c is a constant and a0 is the Bohr radius.)

( )x,0 A[y1( )x y2( )x y3( )x ]

The value of the normalization constant A is

equal to which of the following?

(A) 13(B) 12(C) 1 (D) 2(E) 3

45 A matter wave of energy E > 0 and wave number k is incident from the left on a potential

well is at zero energy and the bottom of the well

is at -V0, as shown in the figure above The spatial part of the wave function in region 3 has

which of the following forms? (A is a constant.)

(D) Ae ik x¢ (k¢ < k)(E) Ae-k x ( real and positive)k

42 Two students perform an experiment in which

they drop a ball from rest from a known height

above the ground and measure the speed of

the ball just before it strikes the ground From

repeated measurement, the students estimate

the uncertainty in the measured speed of the

ball to be 10 percent Which of the following

gives the uncertainty in the kinetic energy of

the ball? (Assume the uncertainty in the ball’s

mass is negligibly small.)

43 Which of the following wave functions represents

a solution to the Schrödinger equation for an

electron in the 2s state of a hydrogen atom?

(A)

Ê r ˆ (B) c exp Á- ˜ Ë a

Y( ) x,0 = A y [ 1 ( )x + y2 ( ) x + y 3 (x ) ]

The value of the normalization constant A is

equal to which of the following?

(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) (E)

45 A matter wave of energy E > 0 and wave number k is incident from the left on a potential well of width L and depth V0 The top of the well is at zero energy and the bottom of the well

is at -V0, as shown in the figure above The spatial part of the wave function in region 3 has

which of the following forms? (A is a constant.)

-29-35

46 Spring 1 has force constant k1 and spring 2 has

force constant k2, where k1 > k2 If the same

external force is applied to both springs, which

of the following is true about the extensions

(D andx1 D ) and the stored potential energiesx2

(U1 andU2) of the two springs?

47 A stone is glued to the top of a light wooden

block that floats in a pool of water, as shown in

Figure 1 above Assume that exactly 50 percent

of the block is under water, and that the stone

has half the weight of the block If the block and

stone are flipped over, as shown in Figure 2, and

replaced in the pool, the amount of the block

under water will be

(A) less than 50%

(B) still 50%

(C) between 50% and 75%

(D) between 75% and 100%

(E) 100%, since the stone and block sink

48 A uniform solid disk starts from rest and rolls down an inclined plane without slipping After some time, what fraction of the disk’s total kinetic energy is rotational kinetic energy?

(A) 14(B) 13(C) 12(D) 23(E) 34

49 Two projectiles are launched from ground level with the same initial speed The maximum height

1

h reached by projectile 1 is twice the maximum

height h reached by projectile 2 If 2 θ1 and θ2

denote the respective launch angles, as measured from the horizontal, these angles satisfy which of the following relationships?

(A) cosθ1 = 2 cosθ2

46 Spring 1 has force constant k1 and spring 2 has

force constant k2 , where k 1 > k If the same

external force is applied to both springs, which

of the following is true about the extensions

( Dx1 and Dx2 ) and the stored potential energies

(U1 and U2 ) of the two springs?

47 A stone is glued to the top of a light wooden

block that floats in a pool of water, as shown in

Figure 1 above Assume that exactly 50 percent

of the block is under water, and that the stone

has half the weight of the block If the block and

stone are flipped over, as shown in Figure 2, and

replaced in the pool, the amount of the block

under water will be

(A) less than 50%

(B) still 50%

(C) between 50% and 75%

(D) between 75% and 100%

(E) 100%, since the stone and block sink

48 A uniform solid disk starts from rest and rolls down an inclined plane without slipping Aftersome time, what fraction of the disk’s total kineticenergy is rotational kinetic energy?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

49 Two projectiles are launched from ground level with the same initial speed The maximum height

height h2 reached by projectile 2 If θ1 and θ2

denote the respective launch angles, as measured from the horizontal, these angles satisfy which of the following relationships?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

-31-37

50 When an object is located 25 cm from lens 1, an inverted image is produced 100 cm from the lens, as shown in Figure 1 above A second lens with a focal length of +20 cm is placed

110 cm from the first lens, as shown in Figure 2 above

Which of the following is true of the image produced by lens 2 ?

(A) It is real and inverted relative to the object

(B) It is real and upright relative to the object

(C) It is virtual and inverted relative to the object

(D) It is virtual and upright relative to the object

(E) An image cannot be produced in this situation

50 When an object is located 25 cm from lens 1, an inverted image is produced 100 cm from the lens, as shown in Figure 1 above A second lens with a focal length of +20 cm is placed

110 cm from the first lens, as shown in Figure 2 above

Which of the following is true of the image produced by lens 2 ?

(A) It is real and inverted relative to the object

(B) It is real and upright relative to the object

(C) It is virtual and inverted relative to the object

(D) It is virtual and upright relative to the object

(E) An image cannot be produced in this situation

-33-39

51 A grating spectrometer can just barely resolve

two wavelengths of 500 nm and 502 nm,

respectively Which of the following gives

the resolving power of the spectrometer?

52 A gas cell with an optical path length of 10 cm is

placed in one arm of a Michelson interferometer

If the light source for the interferometer is a laser

with wavelength l = 632.2 nm, then 100 fringes

are counted as the gas cell is evacuated What is

the index of refraction of the original gas?

53 A microwave line has a laboratory wavelength of

the observed wavelength for the line from a galaxy 100 Mpc distant is about

(A) 250 nm shorter (B) 25 nm shorter(C) the same (D) 25 nm longer (E) 250 nm longer

51 A grating spectrometer can just barely resolve

two wavelengths of 500 nm and 502 nm,

respectively Which of the following gives

the resolving power of the spectrometer?

52 A gas cell with an optical path length of 10 cm is

placed in one arm of a Michelson interferometer

If the light source for the interferometer is a laser

with wavelength l = 632.2 nm, then 100 fringes

are counted as the gas cell is evacuated What is

the index of refraction of the original gas?

53 A microwave line has a laboratory wavelength of

the observed wavelength for the line from a galaxy 100 Mpc distant is about

(A) 250 nm shorter (B) 25 nm shorter (C) the same (D) 25 nm longer (E) 250 nm longer