A child with recurrent sinusitis, bacterial infections, Otitis media and Chronic

 Chloride Sweat Test

sweat chloride tests and genetic testing for diagnosis of CF should be considered in children with nasal polyps, colonization of the nose including chronic otitis media, bronchial asthma, nasal polyps, recurrent pneumonia, immunodeficiencies, aspirin sensitivity, allergic fungal disease,

 Sodium Sweat Test

Q: Prevention in the disease process before occurrence of disease is?

 Primary

Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs. This is done by preventing exposures to hazards that cause disease or injury, altering unhealthy or unsafe behaviours that can lead to disease or injury, and increasing resistance to disease or injury should exposure occur

 Secondary

 Tertiary

Q: Solution not Isotonic to Plasma?

 5% Dextrose

Red cells placed in normal saline (ie 0.9% saline) will not swell so normal saline is said to be isotonic.Ganong argues that an infusion of 5% dextrose is initially isotonic but that when the glucose is taken up and metabolised by cells, the overall effect is of infusing a hypotonic solution.

 Human Plasma Proteins

 0.9% N/S

 Ringer Lactate

Q: Antibody which easily crosses Placenta?

 IgM

 IgG

Placental tr fer of maternal IgG antibodies to the fetus is an important mechanism that provides protection to the infant while his/her humoral response is inefficient. IgG is the only antibody class that significantly crosses the human placenta

Q: Drug of Choice for Trichomonas Vaginalis?

 Metronidazole

Metronidazole is highly effective in the treatment of many anaerobic bacterial and protozoal infections. Oral metronidazole is the drug of choice for trichomoniasis. Single- dose therapy with 2 g orally is as effective as prolonged therapy with 500 mg twice daily for 7 days.

 Tetracycline

 Fluconazole

Q: Linea Aspera fuses superiorly with?

 Inter-trochanteric Line

The site of attachment for the muscles.Vastus medialis muscle arises from the distal part of an intertrochanteric line and medial ridge of linea aspera of the femur.

 Inter-trochanteric Crest

 Gluteal Tuberosity

Q: Angiotensin 2 causes salt retention through?

 IP3

Ca/IP3 pathway and activates acute responses, such as vascular smooth muscle contraction, MAPK activities, and EGF receptor in the plasma membrane. Thus the retention of salt caused by aldosterone indirectly tends to elevate blood pressure and cardiac output.

 C-AMP

 C-GMP

 Phospholipase C

Q: Virus causes mutations in?

 Proto-oncogene

A few cancer syndromes are caused by inherited mutations of proto-oncogenes that cause the oncogene to be turned on (activated). But most cancer-causing mutations involving oncogenes are acquired, not inherited.

 Oncogene

Q: Mechanism of action of Heparin?

 Antithrombin 3

Mechanism of action. Heparin binds to the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III (AT), causing a conformational change that results in its activation through an increase in the flexibility of its reactive site loop. The activated AT then inactivates thrombin, factor Xa and other proteases.

 Factor 10 C. Prothrombin

1Q: Bone forming cells are called?

 Osteoblasts

These old osteoblasts are also called LINING CELLS. They regulate passage of calcium into and out of the bone, and they respond to hormones by making special proteins that activate the osteoclasts. OSTEOCYTES are cells inside the bone. They also come from osteoblasts.

 Osteoclasts

 Osteocytes

07 Sep 2017 Morning (B)

1Q: Regarding blood supply of bones

 Small bones supplied by nutrient artery

 Irregular bone supplied by nutrient artery

 Flat bones bone supplied by nutrient

 Ends of long bones supplied by epiphyseal arteries

The end of the long bones are supplied by vessels that enter the metaphysis and epiphysis through small foramina at the periphery. After entering the bone these arterioles branch into arterial arcades, forming a dense interlocking network

1Q: Secondary ossification center appears in?

 Epiphysis

ossification center appears in each end (epiphysis) of long bones. Periosteal buds carry mesenchyme and blood vessels in and the process is similar to that occurring in a primary ossification center.

b.Metaphysis c. Diaphysis

1Q: Hb acts as a buffer because?

 It rejects H+

 It accepts H+.

Hemoglobin is able to buffer the ph of blood. It is able to accept a hydrogen ion from a carbon dioxide molecule, and release a bicarb ion into blood, helping raise the ph of

blood.Haemoglobin binds to H+ ions when they are in high concentration and releases them when they are in low concentration

1Q: Most important ECF buffer?

 Protein

 HCO3

The bicarbonate buffering system is important in many different cellular processes. Just a few are listed below. It is one of the major buffering systems used to maintain the pH of mammalian blood. It is used in the formation of acid in the lumen on the stomach

1Q: A Pt with upper abdomen pain and dysuria. Which drug is used to relieve the pain?

 Dicyclomine

Dicyclomine is used to treat a certain type of intestinal problem called irritable bowel syndrome. It helps to reduce the symptoms of stomach and intestinal cramping

1Q: A Pt developed moderate pain after limb surgery. The drug of choice for this pt?

a. Pethidine

 Morphine

 Ketorolac

Ketorolac is used for the short-term treatment of moderate to severe pain.It is usually used before or after medical procedures or after surgery. Reducing pain helps you recover more comfortably so that you can return to your normal daily activities

1Q: A Pt aspirated on table during surgery. After 10 days a lesion with air fluid levels was noticed. On drain culture, it turned out to be polymicrobial. Dx?

 Lung Abscess

lung abscess is a subacute infection that destroys lung parenchyma. Further, chest radiographs reveal one or more cavities, often with an air-fluid level

1Q: A Pt suffered anterior wall MI due to embolus in his coronary artery. Which type of necrosis is seen in this pt?

 Coagulative necrosis

Coagulative necrosis is a type of accidental cell death typically caused by ischemia or infarction. In coagulative necrosis the architecture of dead tissue is preserved for at least a couple of days.

 Caseous

 Liquificative

 Fibrinoid necrosis

1Q: A young child with MCV 51, MCH 17 and low Hb. On exam, hepatosplenomegaly was remarkable. What’s most likely dx? Which test will u do now to confirm diagnosis?

a. Ferritin

 Bone marrow biopsy

 Hb electrophoresis

(hepatosplenomegaly is the key word)

 Iron and TIBC

1Q: Which of the following are rapidly adapting receptors?

 Pacinian Corpuscles

Pacinian corpuscles, are one of the four major types of mechanoreceptor cell in glabrous mammalian skin. They are nerve endings in the skin responsible for sensitivity to vibration and pressure.

 Meissner

 Baroreceptor

 Unencapsulated receptor

1Q: Citrate is given to patient with renal calcium stones. What is the mechanism of citrate in this case?

 Complexes with Ca

 Decrease urine PH

 Inc urine pH

Potassium citrate works by crystallizing stone-forming salts such as calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, and uric acid within the urinary bladder by increasing the urinary pH and urine citrate levels

1Q: Wave of atrial repolarization is evident on ECG in?

 Exercise

 1st degree heart block

 3rd degree heart block

atrial repolarization are scarce since the QRS complex normally obscures its ECG trace. In the present study, consecutive patients with third-degree AV block were studied to better describe the human Ta wave.

 Mobitz 1

1Q: Which of the following infection is most likely related with Cysts in Brain with daughter cysts on a CT scan?

 Taenia Echinococcus

 Taenia Solium

116. In which of the following there is lymphocytosis?

 TB

A meningeal pattern of spread can occur, and the cerebrospinal fluid typically shows a high protein, low glucose, and lymphocytosis.

 Hay fever

 Polycythemia Vera

1Q: Which nerve accompany radial artery in radial grove at shaft of humerus?

 Sup Radial nerve

 Deep Radial nerve

radial nerve is the most frequently injured major nerve in the upper limb, with its close proximity to the bone making it vulnerable.The radial nerve runs across the latissimus dorsi muscle, deep to the axillary artery.

 Median nerve

 Musculocutaneous nerve

1Q: Lacunar ligament is formed by medial fibers of?

 Inguinal Ligament

 Reflected inguinal ligament

 Pectineal part of inguinal ligament

The lacunar ligament is a ligament in the inguinal region that connects the inguinal ligament to the pectineal ligament near the point where they both insert on the pubic tubercle 1Q: Which of the following will be seen after damage to Type 2 Pneumocytes?

 Dec Surfactant production

Type II Pneumocytes responsible for the production and secretion of surfactant were suggested to participate in the development of COPD

1Q: Karyotype of Klinefelter Syndrome?

 47XXY

Klinefelter syndrome (KS) also known as 47,XXY or XXY, is the set of symptoms that result from two or more X chromosomes in males. The primary features are sterility and small testicles.

 47XYY

 46XO

 46XX

1Q: Thoracic Vagotomy results in?

 Dec contraction of distal stomach

 Dec peristalsis of esophagus

 Dec Gastrin secretion

One potential side effect of vagotomy is a vitamin B12 deficiency. As vagotomy decreases gastric secretion

 Dec Contraction on Antrum distention

1Q: Tyrosine kinase receptors are present?

 On cell membrane

Ephrins and their tyrosine kinase receptors Eph are cell surface ligands and receptors with bidirectional signal tr duction properties.

 In cytoplasm

 On nuclear membrane

 On nucleus

1Q: Which of the following drug is distributed mostly in ECF?

 Mannitol

Because mannitol also expands extracellular fluid (ECF) volume and can precipitate pulmonary edema in patients with heart failure, it should be used cautiously in these patients.

 Lidocaine

 Chloroquine

 Captopril

1Q: Which of the following drug is both positive Chronotropic and Ionotropic effect?

a. Phenylephrine

 Glucagon

 Isoproterenol

Isoproterenol produces positive chronotropic and inotropic cardiac effects via β1- adrenoceptor stimulation, and bronchodilation and vasodilatation in vascular

 Digoxin

1Q: Which of the following decreases neuronal excitability by change in RMP?

 Hyperkalemia

 Hypokalemia

hypokalemia cause arrhythmias because of more complete recovery from sodium-channel inactivation, making the triggering of an action potential less likely.

 Hypocalcemia

 Hyponatremia

1Q: Which of the following stimulate Renin secretion?

 K Concentration

Alterations in plasma potassium concentration have opposite and independent effects on renin secretion by the kidney and on aldosterone secretion by the adrenal gland.

 Inc Osmolality

 Inc Volume

 Dec Atrial stretch receptors

1Q: A disoriented old Pt was brought in ER by his wife with complains of Rt. flank pain and vomiting. Diagnosis of Acute Appendicitis was made and urgent appendectomy was suggested. Pt didn’t give the consent for surgery. Next step?

 Take court order

 Discuss with other doctor

 Don’t proceed for operation

 Take consent from wife

Consent to treatment is the principle that a person must give permission before they

receive any type of medical treatment, test or examination. But clinici must take able steps to seek advice from the patient's friends or relatives before making these decisions

1Q: An old patient in a cardiology clinic complains about the receptionist behavior.

Though staff and other patients are happy with the receptionist. What will you do?

 Reschedule her appointment

 Apologize and offer that i will talk to the receptionist

For the receptionist dealing with unhappy patients can be upsetting especially if they are made to feel that the complaint is directed at them personally. Deal with the situation to the best of your ability, apologise to the person that they are upset,

 Refer to Psychiatrist

1Q: Lesion at which level would cause complete cessation of spontaneous respiration?

 Tr ection at the level of Midbrain

 Tr ection above the level of Pons

 Tr ection below the level of Caudal medulla

because respiration is produced by medulla but made rhythmic & regular by pontine centres 1Q: Stimulation of motor unit-A cause’s contraction of 120 muscle fibers and

stimulation of motor unit-B causes contraction of 60 fibers. When they are stimulated together, contraction of 120 fibers occurs. This phenomenon is called?

 Occlusion

This bone-conducted phenomenon is called the occlusion effect. Because this second phenomenon is related to amplification it is termed ampclusion.

 After Discharge

 Temporal summation

 Subliminal Fringe

1Q: If duration of systole is 0.3 sec when HR is 75bpm. What will be duration of systole when HR is 225?

 0.1sec

Atrial systole, 0.1 sec Ventricular systole, 0.3 sec Quiescent period, 0.4 sec Total duration is 0.8 sec In a heart beating at 75 bpm.

 0.2sec

 0.05s

 0.3sec

1Q: The pressure in RT atrium at which pulmonary valve opens?

 25mmHg

 0

 15

 8

Once the pressure in the left and right ventricles exceeds the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery, the aortic and pulmonary valves open. Pressure range in the right atrium is 0 to 8 mm Hg

1Q: Location of Tr mural Thrombi?

 Lt Atrium

 Lt ventricle

Early data from the prethrombolytic and thrombolytic eras suggest that in the setting of AMI, LV thrombus was present in 7–46% of patient

It is most often located in the LV at the site of myocardial infarction

Ref : Thoracic Imaging: Pulmonary and Cardiovascular Radiology - Page 837 c.Vein

d.Artery

134. Rt. middle lobe of lung drains into which vein?

 Superior Pulmonary Vein

The right middle and superior pulmonary veins usually join so that two veins, superior and inferior, leave each lung.

b.Inferior Pulmonary Vein

c.Bronchial veins

1Q: Blood supply of Rectum?

 Superior mesenteric artery

 Branches of inferior mesenteric artery

The Inferior Mesenteric Artery. The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is a major branch of the abdominal aorta. It supplies arterial blood to the org of the hindgut the distal 1/3 of the tr verse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.

 Inf Rectal artery

1Q: Knee jerk is an example of?

 Myogenic reflex

 Automatic reflex

 Involuntary reflex

When a response is involuntary, it may be called a reflex action. One example is the knee- jerk reflex the right leg is crossed over the left, and struck sharply just above or below the knee-cap, the lower leg jerks outward by reflex action

1Q: A female Pt with malar rash and arthralgia. ANA was positive. What’s the diagnostic test for the condition?

 Anti-dsDNA

The anti-double stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) test is used to help diagnose lupus (systemic lupus erythematosus, SLE) in a person who has a positive result on a test for antinuclear antibody (ANA) and has clinical signs and symptoms that suggest lupus

1Q: A section of the caudal pons shows HORIZONTAL fibers. These fiber most likely consists of?

 Superior cerebellar peduncle

 Inferior cerebellar peduncle

 Middle cerebellar peduncle

The trigeminal nerve (CN V) can be seen arising from the lateral aspect of the pons in the vicinity of the middle cerebellar peduncles

1Q: A Pt suffered from Bitemporal hemianopia with raised prolactin. Most likely condition associated with it?

 Pituitary Adenoma

The striking feature of pituitary adenomas in perimetry is bitemporal hemianopsia, sparing central vision and resulting from compression or destruction of the fibres that cross the centre of the optic chiasm.

 Lateral Geniculate body

 Sup Colliculus

1Q: Sensory-neural deafness on Audiometry is characterized by?

 Increased air bone gap

 Ascending curve

 Bone conduction better than air conduction

 Air conduction better than bone conduction

In the presence of normal hearing or sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is better than bone conduction

1Q: Tensor Palatini nerve supply?

 Mandibular Nerve

Nerve supply. The tensor veli palatini is supplied by the medial pterygoid nerve, a branch of mandibular nerve, the third branch of the trigeminal nerve - the only muscle of the palate not innervated by the pharyngeal plexus, which is formed by the vagal and glossopharyngeal nerves.

 Vagus Nerve

 Glossopharyngeal nerve 1Q: Cohort study:

 It can be retrospective.

While retrospective cohort studies try to compare the risk of developing a disease to some already known exposure factors, a case-control study will try to determine the possible exposure factors after a known disease incidence.

 Cohort tells about outcome of disease 1Q: Tunica Albuginea is derivative of?

 Derivative of parietal peritoneum

The tunica vaginalis is the pouch of serous membrane that covers the testes. It is derived from the vaginal process of the peritoneum, which in the fetus precedes the descent of the testes from the abdomen into the scrotum.

 Derivative of visceral peritoneum

 Gubernaculum

1Q: Costophrenic Recess is formed by?

 Parietal pleura between base of lungs and Diaphragm

The costodiaphragmatic recess, also called the costophrenic recess or phrenicocostal sinus, is a potential space in the pleural cavity, at the posterior-most s of the cavity, located at the junction of the costal pleura and diaphragmatic pleura (in the costophrenic angle)

1Q: Most important constituent of Lipids?

 Phosphorus

 Mg

 Carbon

Among the most biologically significant properties of lipids are their hydrophobic properties.

These properties are mainly due to a particular component of lipids: fatty acids, or simply fats. Fatty acids .. Palmitate is a 16-carbon, saturated fatty acid, and oleate is an 18-carbon fatty acid with a single cis double bond

1Q: Hypercalcemia effects the formation of?

 1,25 dihydroxy Cholecalciferol

 24,25 dihyroxycholecalciferol

Small doses (1-10 microgram daily) of 24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (24,25-(OH)2D3), a renal metabolite of vitamin D of uncertain function, increased intestinal absorption of calcium in normal people and in patients.

 25 Cholecalciferol

1Q: The fetal part of placenta is?

 Cytotrophoblast

 Syncytiotrophoblasts

 Decidua Basalis

 Chorion Frundosum

The fetal part of the placenta is known as the chorion. The maternal component of the placenta is known as the decidua basalis. Oxygen and nutrients in the maternal blood in the intervillous spaces diffuse through the walls of the villi and enter the fetal capillaries

1Q: Regarding Kidney?

 Drain into Para-aortic lymph nodes

 Covered in Fascia with Adrenal glands

The renal fascia or Gerota's fascia is a layer of connective tissue encapsulating the kidneys and the adrenal glands

1Q: CT scan at L-1 level shows which of the following?

 Superior mesenteric artery origin

The superior mesenteric artery is the second of the three major anterior branches of the abdominal aorta (the other two are the coeliac trunk and inferior mesenteric artery). It arises anteriorly from the abdominal aorta at the level of the L1 vertebrae, immediately inferior to the origin of the coeliac trunk.

 Renal hila

 Head of pancreas

 Ima

1Q: A child presented with enlarged liver and spleen and is pale too. Abnormal shaped RBCs seen on smear .Similar condition in other sibling .which investigation will be

performed?

a. Hb electrophoresis

A hemoglobin electrophoresis can help diagnose diseases involving abnormal hemoglobin production, and often is performed as part of newborn screening tests

 Bone marrow biopsy

 Blood cultures

 Retic count

1Q: which type of immunological response occurs in BCG vaccination?-

 delayed T cell response

T-cell responses when BCG vaccination is delayed from birth to 6 weeks of age in Ugandan infants. delay in BCG vaccination on the induced immune response.

 immediate T cell response

 macrophage activation

1Q: A test which excludes true negative is called?

 specific

Specificity (also called the true negative rate) measures the proportion of negatives that are correctly identified as such (e.g. the percentage of healthy people who are correctly

identified as not having the condition).

 Sensitive

1Q: What is the total iron requirement in pregnancy?

 1200mg

The total iron requirements in normal pregnancy are approximately 1240 mg Ref: Danforth's Obstetrics and Gynecology - Page 276

 2000mg

 800mg

1Q: Which of the following nerve accompany Superior laryngeal artery?

 internal laryngeal nerve

Remember for Superior Thyroid Artery =External Laryngeal N

 RLN

 external laryngeal nerve

 superior laryngeal nerve

156. Total peripheral resistance is due to?

 Vasomotor tone

The vasomotor tone was estimated by total peripheral resistance (TPR = mean aortic pressure/mean AoF)

 Microcirculation

 Arterial pressure

1Q: A pt stopped drinking alcohol, risk of which of the following is still present?

 Hepatocellular carcinoma

It is well recognized that one cause of chronic liver disease and hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is alcohol consumption. There is only one way of diagnosing HCC, which is early identification through surveillance, when curative treatments become possible.

 Cirrhosis

1Q: Number of Division of lower respiratory tract?

 21

 23

the tract continues down into the lungs where the passage divides mulle times (as much as 24 times in an adult), with each passageway growing smaller until it terminates in the miniature air sacs that make up our lungs.

Ref: Critical Care Medicine: Principles of Diagnosis and Management in the Adult. By Joseph

 17

 19

1Q: Executive malaise diagnosed in patient with HCV-RNA. Routine labs, USG and LFTS normal? What should be the treatment plan for this patient?

 Interferon only

 Ribavirin only