A patient has nodule on vocal cord. The least likely mechanism?

 Hyperplasia

 Atrophy

Atrophy

 Hypertrophy

1Q: 30 yrs. old person has stab wound on right side of chest. What will happen?

 Ipsilateral lung collapse and ipsilateral chest wall spring out

Ipsilateral lung collapse and ipsilateral chest wall spring out. pneumothorax may be induced by a break in either the parietal pleura (e.g., from trauma, needle or catheter insertion

 Ipsilateral lung collapse and contralateral chest wall collapse

 No change in chest wall

 Contralateral lung collapse and ipsilateral chest wall collapse

09 Nov 2016 Evening (B)

1Q: Deficiency of pulmonary surfactant:

 increases surface tension, increases compliance

 increases surface tension, decreases compliance

Deficiency of surfactant increases surface tension,thus decreases compliance

 decreases surface tension, decreases compliance

 decreases surface tension, increases compliance

1Q: A patient presents to the emergency department with 6 hours history of severe central chest pain and dyspnea. Which of the enzymes would be elevated?

 SGOT

 SGPT

 LDH

 CPK

CPK Is correct wer

1Q: Organism associated with bladder squamous cell carcinoma:

 Schistosoma haematobium

evidence associating S. haematobium infection with the development of bladder cancer is far greater than that for any other parasitic infection.

 Schistosoma M oni

 Schistosoma Japanicom

1Q: Not a part of natural immunity:

 Plasminogen

Tissue-type plasminogen activator regulates macrophage activation and innate immunity

 Interferon

1Q: Smoking affect organogenesis during which period of gestation?

 3.8 weeks

This begins at 6 weeks and extends to 10 weeks. It is during this period that the fetus is most at risk from birth defects caused by external factors (such as drugs and other toxins/smoke ).

 4.10 weeks

 12.15 weeks

 1.2 weeks

1Q: Open wound healing includes:

 Contraction of myofibroblasts

Open wound healing includes Contraction of myofibroblasts.

 Fibroblast

 Macrophages

 Lymphocytes

1Q: Basal rhythm of small intestine?

 Synchronized with stomach

 Decrease when mechanical activity start

 Variable effect by hormone

Variable effect by hormone on basal rhythm of small intestine.

 Constant in duodenum variable else where 108. Exotoxin:

 Corynebacterium diphtheria

Corynebacterium diphtheria produces Exotoxins.

 Staph aure

 Strep pyogenes

 Clostridium tetani

109. Which among following is a chemical carcinogen?

 Alpha 1 antitrypsin

 Benzidine

A large number of known carcinogens are found in cigarette smoke. Potent carcinogens found in cigarette smoke include polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH, such as

benzo[a]pyrene), Benzene, and Nitrosamine.

 Ethyl alcohol

 Aflatoxin

110. Regarding Glycolysis which one is correct?

 Reversible

 Hexose phosphate converted to lactate and pyruvate

 Same as Hexose monophosphate shunt

 Includes hexose sugars to pyruvate Includes hexose sugars to pyruvate

1Q: 55.year.old woman with insulin dependent diabetes of 40 years’ duration

complains of severe bloating and abdominal distress, especially after meals. Evaluation is consistent with diabetic gastro paresis. The drug you would be most likely to recommend is

 Docusate

 Dopamine

 Loperamide

 Metoclopramide

Drugs used to relieve nausea and vomiting in gastroparesis include promotility drugs such as metoclopramide and domperidone

1Q: Most specific for diagnosis of SLE:

 Anti dsDNA

The anti-dsDNA antibodies are a marker for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) and 70–

98% of patients test positive.

 ANA

 Anti SSA

 Anti-histone antibodies

1Q: Patient presented with dryness of eyes and mouth. Which of the following would be most helpful in the diagnosis?

 Anti SSA

Anti-SSA autoantibodies are anti-nuclear autoantibodies that are associated with many autoimmune diseases, such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE),

 Anti-ds-DNA

 ANA

1Q: Frequency distribution:

 Tells distribution of value appear in data Tells distribution of value appear in data

 Tells distribution of value which is missing

 Gives percentage of values

 Can’t be used for data from different categories

1Q: Most potent response in massive hemorrhage?

 CNS ischemic response

Most potent response in massive hemorrhage is vasoconstriction leading to CNS ischemic response

 Baroreceptors

 Peripheral chemoreceptors

 Brain bridge reflex

1Q: Difference between septic and hypovolemic shock?

 Temperature

Temperature differentiate between the two types of shock.

 Cardiac output

 Heart rate

1Q: Regarding pharyngeal phase of deglutition which is appropriate?

 Vocal cords strongly approximate

During the pharyngeal phase, the vocal folds close to keep food and liquids from entering the airway.

 Larynx moves downward

 Esophageal sphincter is contracted

 Palatopharyngeal fold moves downward

1Q: The effect which a drug causes on body is called?

 Pharmacodynamics

Pharmacodynamics is the study of how a drug affects an organism

 Pharmacokinetics

 Bioavailability

1Q: Parasympathetic origin in spinal cord

 S2 S3 S4

S2,3,4 is Parasympathetic origin in spinal cord

 S1 S2 S3

 S3 S4 S5

 L1.L2

1Q: True about Ulnar nerve:

 Loss of abduction and adduction of fingers

ulnar nerve supplies two muscles:Flexor carpi ulnaris Flexes and adducts the hand at the wrist and Flexor digitorum profundus (medial half) – Flexes the fingers.

 Loss of opposition of thumb

 Wrist drop

 Thenar muscles wasting

1Q: Epileptic drug which increases the effect of other Antiepileptic’s when given together is

a. Valproic

The possible synergistic effect of valproic acid and ethosuximide in combination on pentylenetetrazole(when given with Lamotrigine especially)

 Phenytoin

 Carbamazepine

1Q: Drain is inserted in chest wall at the lower border of rib. Which structure will be damaged first?

a. Intercostal nerve

intercostal nerve damage at chest tube insertion site.

 Intercostal vein

 Intercostal artery

1Q: Which vein drains into the left brachiocephalic vein?

 Inferior thyroid vein

the inferior thyroid veins drain directly to the brachiocephalic veins.

 Superior thyroid vein

 Middle thyroid vein

1Q: Preganglionic autonomic fibers are?

 B fibers

Preganglionic autonomic B fibers and sensory fibers involved in cold and pain sensation are small myelinated nerve fibers.

 C fibers

 A beta

 A delta

1Q: Avidin binds with

 Biotin

Avidin is a tetrameric biotin-binding protein produced in the oviducts of birds, reptiles and amphibi and deposited in the whites of their eggs

 Vit B12

 Vit C

 Vit D

126. In pancreatic fistula somatostatin helps by a. Decreasing output of secretions

Somatostatin helps by decrease output of secretions.

b. Increasing pH. of secretions c. Increasing blood flow of gland d. Inhibiting enzymes

1Q: Which is present just lateral to the trachea?

 Vagus nerve

Vagus Nerve is present just lateral to the trachea

 Phrenic nerve

 RLN

1Q: Usual cause of atrophy of breast in adult female is deficiency of?

 Gonadotropin

 Growth hormone

 Estrogen

 Estrogen and progesterone

Usual cause of atrophy of breast in adult female is deficiency of Estrogen and progesterone (ref: Big Snell, page 336, Ed: 9th if asked most common then estrogen)

1Q: Women using OCPs are most common at risk for

 Thromboembolism

these pills may present side-effects including obstruction of leg and pulmonary vessels by clots ( venous thrombosis)

 Osteoporosis

 Osteomalacia

1Q: One of the following is related to the diagnosis of asthma in 20 yr. old male?

 FEV1/FVC <65

FEV1/FVC <65 This number represents the percent of the lung size (FVC) that can be exhaled in one second. For example, if the FEV1 is 4 and the FVC is 5, then the FEV1/ FVC ratio would be 4/5 or 80%.The normal value for the FEV1/FVC ratio is 70%.

 PO2 =40 mmHg

 Respiratory rate=12

 Tidal volume 500 ml

1Q: Male infertility due to testicular cause?

 Cryptorchidism

As psychological stigma The relationship between cryptorchidism and male infertility is evident when azoospermic men were studied

 Hypospadiasis

 Klinefelter syndrome

 Varicocele

1Q: Metabolic rate is increased by:

 Thyroxine

Thyroid hormones stimulate diverse metabolic activities most tissues, leading to an increase in basal metabolic rate.

 Decrease body temperature

1Q: A 65 Year old mate patient Presented with chest pain for last 30 mins. And has ST segment elevation in leads

V1 to V4. He is most likely to have

 Anterior infarction

All findings are features of anterior infarction

 Anterolateral infraction

 Lateral infarction

 Inferior infarction

1Q: Which of the following is not directly caused by cortisol in Cushing's syndrome?

 Buffalo hump

 Thin lower limb

 Hirstuism

Hirstuism is not related to cushing’s syndrome rest are features of this illness.

 Pendulous Abdomen

1Q: In bone new matrix and fibers are form by?

 Fibroblast

 Osteoclast

 Osteoblast

The intercellular matrix was woven with collagen fibres surround- ing large numbers of matrix vesicles. In areas with matrix vesicles, evidence for osteoblast activity

 Osteocytes 1Q: Blood Antigens:

 Present in saliva

A significant proportion of individuals are secretors which me that the antigens which are present in their blood will also be found in other body fluids such as saliva.

 Called agglutinins

1Q: Anemia of chronic disease:

 Serum tr ferrin saturation is low

 Iron is mirror for Bone marrow ferritin

 Iron not coming out of monocytic macrophage Iron not coming out of monocytic macrophage.

 Can’t recall other 2 options

1Q: Q fever is caused by which organism?

 Rickettsiae

Coxiella burnetii is an obligate intracellular bacterial pathogen, and is the causative agent of Q fever

 Rick

 Virus

 Parasite

1Q: Primary Center of Ossification at Epiphysis of Long bone at Birth?

 Lower end of Femur

primary centers occur usually in the body of the bone.

 Lower End of Humerus

 Upper End of Fibula

 Upper End of Tibia

1Q: Patient with Hypotension, should not give benzodiazepine in which case?

 Hypovolemic

To minimize adverse events, benzodiazepine doses should be reduced in elderly or hypovolemic patients

 Obese

 Age > 65

 Pregnancy

1Q: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is diagnosed by:

 Positive antiglobin

The direct antiglobulin test (DAT), also known as the direct Coombs test, is used primarily to help determine the cause of hemolytic anemia.

 Splenomegaly

 Spherocytosis

 Reticulocytosis

1Q: Right iliac fossa pain referred to umbilicus???

 T 10

T10 supplied thus area.

 T 8

 L 1

1Q: Regarding Thymus:

 Supplied by internal thoracic and inferior thyroid artery

 T Lymphocytes enter into the blood stream through post capillary venules T Lymphocytes enter into the blood stream through post capillary venules

 Is a lobulated organ

 One option was about something collagen (Can’t recall) 1Q: Small emboli from veins is most commonly lodged in

 Lungs

embolism occurs when part or all of the DVT breaks away and travels through the blood in the veins and lodges in the lungs

 Heart

 Brain

 Kidneys

1Q: Lobar pneumonia diagnosis

 Sputum culture

sputum cultures imprecise in the diagnosis.need a chest X-ray or other tests, such as a sputum (mucus) test or blood tests, if your symptoms haven't improved within 48 hours of starting treatment.

 Sputum staining

 Blood culture 1Q: True about Kidney:

 Cuboidal epithelium in parietal layer of bowman capsule

 Podocytes on visceral layer of bowman capsule

Bowman's space Between the visceral and parietal layers, into which the filtrate enters after passing through the filtration slits. Visceral layer Lies just above the thickened glomerular basement membrane and is made of podocytes.

 DCT longer than PCT

 Glomerulus has single arteriole 1Q: Aphasia due to lesion in:

 Temporal lobe

Individuals with Broca's aphasia have damage to the frontal lobe of the brain. These individuals frequently speak in short, meaningful phrases that are produced with great effort

 Parietal

 Occipital

1Q: Plasma half-life of a drug depends upon:

 Rate of clearance

The half-life of a drug depends on its clearance and volume of distribution. The elimination half-life is considered to be independent of the amount of drug in the body

 Volume of distribution

 Dose

 Rate of absorption 1Q: Prozone phenomenon?

 Antigen excess

 Antibody excess

The range of relatively high antibody concentrations within which no reaction occurs is called the prozone. The effect can also occur because of antigen excess, when both the capture and detection antibodies become saturated by the high analyte concentration.

 Antigen depletion

 Antibody depletion 1Q: Gonorrhea DOC?

 Penicillin G

Prevention recommends that uncomplicated gonorrhea be treated only with the antibiotic ceftriaxone given as an injection in combination with either azithromycin or doxycycline.

 Ceftriaxone

 Gentamycin

1Q: Dose of which of the following drug should be reduced in renal impairment:

 Gentamicin

The tẵ can extend to 30-60 hours in patients who are functionally anephric therefore, dosage reduction or modification is necessary in renal failure/impairment patients.

 Rifampicin

 Penicillamine

 Phenytoin

1Q: Primary brain vesicle:

 Mesencephalon

Initially there are three primary brain vesicles: prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon.

 Telencephalon

 Diencephalon

 Metencephalon 1Q: Diabetic gangrene:

 Atheromas in arteries

Conditions that can affect the blood vessels and increase your risk of developing

gangrene.Dry gangrene may develop slowly. It occurs most commonly in diabetic patients who have arterial blood vessel disease such as atherosclerosis.

 Always start as moist necrosis

 A/V fistula develop

 Large arteries are always responsible

1Q: Most common cause of sex chromosome abnormality???

 Hermaphrodite

 Klinefelter syndrome

47, XXY also known as Klinefelter syndrome is the Most common cause of sex chromosome abnormality.

 Downs Syndrome

 Multi X female

1Q: Which of the following veins drains into coronary sinus and itself becomes part of coronary sinus?

a. Great cardiac vein

The coronary sinus receives blood mainly from the small, middle, great and oblique cardiac vein.

 Middle cardiac vein

 Anterior cardiac vein

 Small cardiac veins

1Q: A 24 years old female with 12 weeks of amenorrhea presents with frequent burning micturition and high grade fever. Diagnosis?

 DM

 Early pregnancy

 Urinary bladder stone

 UTI

History point towards features of urinary tract infection

1Q: Sodium reabsorption in baso lateral membrane occurs through:

 Glucose co tr port

 Na K pump

Sodium reabsorption in baso lateral membrane occurs through sodium Potassium pump

1Q: Parasympathetic effect on heart increases permeability in SA node to

 Sodium

 Potassium

At the SA node, potassium permeability can be further enhanced by vagal stimulation.

 Calcium

 Sodium and calcium 1Q: A hematocrit of 41% me :

 41% formed elements in blood are RBCs

 41% blood in plasma

 41% of blood in serum

 41% of formed elements in blood compromises of RBCs, WBCs, platelets

ESR is the ratio of the volume of red cells to the volume of whole blood. Normal range for hematocrit is different between the sexes and is approximately 45% to 52% for men and 37% to 48% for women

1Q: GFR is decreased by

 stone in ureter

 Angiotensin 2

vasoconstrictor angiotensin II preferentially constricts efferent arterioles. This constriction will increase GFR.angiotensin II receptor blockers will abolish this effect and will have a decreased GFR.

 Afferent arterioles dilation

1Q: Zinc is important essential element in one of the following:

 Carbonic anhydrase

Zinc's role in carbonic anhydrase is to facilitate the water to create a proton H+ and a nucleophilic hydroxide ion. The nucleophilic water molecules attack the carbonyl group of carbon dioxide to convert it into bicarbonate

 Cellular oxidation

 Vitamin B12

 Glycolysis

1Q: The most usual complication of wound healing in black population is?????

 Hemorrhage

 Keloid formation

A healing of an incisional wound could become an ugly scar called Keloid,around 10% of the keloid incidence occurs in the African-American population.

 Malignant change

 Metaplasia

1Q: In a healthy alert adult sitting with eyes closed, the dominant EEG pattern with electrodes over the occipital lobe?

 Alpha

Alpha waves are one type of brain waves detected either by electroencephalography (EEG) or magnetoencephalography (MEG) and predominantly originate from the occipital lobe during wakeful relaxation with closed eyes.

 Theta

 Delta

 Beta 164. Paracetamol:

 Weak anti-inflammatory property

Paracetamol has relatively little anti-inflammatory activity, unlike other common analgesics such as the NSAIDs aspirin and ibuprofen.

 Nephrotoxic 1Q: Cerebellar lesion:

 Ataxia

Acute cerebellar ataxia (ACA) is a disorder that occurs when the cerebellum becomes

inflamed or damaged. The cerebellum is the area of the brain responsible for controlling gait and muscle coordination

 Rigidity

 Difficulty in initiating movement

 Resting tremors 1Q: Cause of cyanosis:

 Decrease O2 in the blood

 Decrease Hb

 Increase concentration of deoxy hemoglobin

Cyanosis is a bluish color of mucous membranes and/or skin. While this is most frequently attributable to increased amounts of unoxygenated hemoglobin.it is classically described as occurring if 5.0 g/dL of deoxyhemoglobin or greater is present

1Q: Secondary oocyte is surrounded by corona radiate, which of the following layer contribute to the formation of corona radiate?

 Granulosa cells

Corona radiata is a layer of granulosa cells. It's formed in Graafian follicle, where the granulosa cells surrounding the secondary oocyte are termed as corona radiata.

 Theca interna cells

 Theca externa cells

1Q: Gas gangrene. Cause of death?

 Septicemia

 Bacteremia

 Toxemia

Gas gangrene can cause myonecrosis (muscle tissue death), gas production, and sepsis.

Progression to toxemia and shock is often very rapid 1Q: Decreased ESR is due to increase in:

 Fibrinogen

 Plasma albumin

The addition of albumin to normal plasma, hypoalbuminaemic plasma, or dextran solutions in buffer decreased the erythrocyte sedimentation rate

1Q: Which of the following protein binds free hemoglobin in plasma???

 Alpha 2 macroglobulin

 Tr ferrin

 Haptoglobin

Haptoglobin functions to bind free plasma hemoglobin

1Q: Difference between malignant and normal cells such that malignant cells repair the shortening of chromosome so that they can continue dividing. Enzyme responsible?

 Telomerase

Telomerase is the enzyme responsible for maintenance of the length of telomeres by addition of guanine-rich repetitive sequences. Telomerase activity is exhibited in gametes and stem and tumor cells.

 Reverse tr criptase

 Isomerase

1Q: Cimetidine is not used frequently because it causes???

 Decrease hepatic metabolism

cimetidine decreases liver blood flow and increases the bioavailability of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios

 Nausea and vomiting

1Q: Gonorrhea can be easily diagnosed by:

 Gram stain

The Gram-stained smear of secretions in female children and adolescents was evaluated as a diagnostic aid in acute gonorrhea.

 ZN stain

 Culture

 PCR

1Q: Glucagon secretion is increased by?

 Exercise

Glucagon is released in response to low blood glucose levels and to events whereby the body needs additional glucose, such as in response to vigorous exercise.

 secretin

 Somatostatin

 Fatty acid

1Q: Most common premalignant lesion of the skin?

 Seborrhic keratosis

 Intradermal Nevus

 Junctional Nevus

Acquired melanocytic Junctional nevi represent the most common dermal melanocytic lesions in hum

1Q: Inhibitory factor released by hypothalamus against which one of the following?

a. Prolactin

 Oxytocin

Oxytocin in controlled by hypothalamus while rest are under pituitary gland.

 ADH

 Growth Hormone

1Q: Medial lemiscus formed by a.Nucleus cuneatus

b.Nucleus gracilis c.both

Both Nucleus gracilis and cuneatus. The medial lemniscus, also known as Reil's band .The medial lemniscus is formed by the crossings of the internal arcuate fibers. The internal arcuate fibers are composed of axons of nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatu

d.none

178.Incorrect about Autosomal dominant

 Incomplete penetrance

if you inherit the abnormal gene from only one parent, you can get the disease.If some people with the mutation do not develop features of the disorder, the condition is said to have reduced (or incomplete) penetrance.

 Both genes are mutated

 Early presentation

 None

1Q: Patient with eyelid dropping, muscle weakness, anterior mediastinal mass. What is seen?

a.Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors b.Antibodies against vagus nucleus receptors c. None

d. Both

1Q: after hemorrhage which will return last to normal?

a.RBCs peripheral smear

Red blood cells in peripheral smear restore late after hemorrhage.

b.Plasma proteins c.Both

d.None

1Q: Hearing is best perceived at?

 Superior temporal gyrus

Superior temporal gyrus is best in preceving Hearing as it contains the primary auditory cortex, which is responsible for processing sounds.

 Medial temporal gyrus

 Inferior temporal gyrus

 Lateral temporal gyrus 1Q: Stress Hormone?

a.Tsh b.pth c.insulline d.corticol

Cortisol is known as Stress Hormone and High levels of the stress hormone cortisol can cause various problems

1Q: After feeding the baby, diarrhea develops. Cause?

a.Gastrocolic reflex

Gastrocolic reflex is diarrhea after feeding. gastrocolic reflex stimulates contractions in the large intestine. These contractions may lead to a bowel movement a short time after eating.

b.Persistalic reflex c.Vagovagal reflex d.None

1Q: Ectoparasite?

a.liver fluck b.ascaris c.tape worm d.Lice

Lice is example of Ectoparasite as it live outside human body 1Q: Pituitary mass causes ?

a.Headaches.

b.Bitemporal hemianopia

c.Unexplained tiredness.

d.All of the above

All above mentioned the signs of pituitary mass effects 1Q: One about Graft rejection?

 HLA

Graft rejection is Associated with HLA. When a human tr plant is performed, molecules from a donor are recognized by the recipient's immune system triggering an alloimmune

response Matching of donor and recipient for MHC antigens has been shown to have a significant positive effect on graft acceptance.

 ABO

 Both

 None

1Q: One was about knee jerk/When hit patellar tendon??

a.Contraction of quadriceps muscles

Knee jerk occurs due to contraction of quadriceps muscles.

b.Contraction of bicep c.Contraction of soleus

b.Contraction of gastrocenimius 1Q: Highest renal clearance?

a.PAH

Para-aminohippurate (PAH) clearance is a method used in renal physiology to measure renal plasma flow, which is a measure of renal function.PAH is completely removed from blood that passes through the kidneys.

b.Mythlene blue C.both

d.none

1Q: Potassium gradient inside and outside the cell is maintained by?

 Ca channels

 Na glucose channels

 Na- k pump