PART A: LISTENING 20pts HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU * Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.. * Mọi hướn[r]
Trang 1UBND HUYỆN TIÊN DU
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆNNĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 6
Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
PART A: LISTENING (20pts)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
* Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
* Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
I Listen to the conversation about how to study better Circle True or False for these
sentences ( 6 points)
4 Tom's mum recommends having a sandwich on the desk True False
5 Tom doesn't want to turn off his phone at first True False
II Listen to five different people talking about their jobs Circle the best answer for these
questions (5 points)
Yes
1 Does speaker A enjoy his job? Sometimes
No
Weekdays
2 When does speaker B work? Weekends
Summer holidays
Yes
3 Does speaker C like his job? Sometimes
No
Visiting different places
4 What does speaker D say is the best thing about his job? Meeting different people.
The different weather
The doctors
5 What does speaker E not like about her job? The sick people
The uniform
III Listen to Mario and Tamara talking about what film they want to see Complete the gaps with the correct word/ number (9 points)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Trang 2Going to the cinema
Tamara: Hi, Mario Do you want to go and watch a film ?
Mario: Hi, Tamara Sure, what’s on ?
Tamara: Well there are two action films, Mr and Mrs Jones and War Games, and they’re both in
(1) _
Mario: I’ve already seen Mr and Mrs Jones I haven’t seen War Games but I don’t (2) _
want to see an action film What else is on ?
Tamara: There’s that (3) _ fiction film, Robot (4) _, but I’ve already seen it.
Mario:Is it good?
Tamara: Yes, it is, but I don’t want to see it again There’s a romantic (5) _called (6)
_
Mario: Mmm, I’m not sure Are there any (7) _ films on?
Tamara: Yes, there’s Midnight Moon It’s got vampires in it.
Mario: OK, (8) _ good Let’s go and watch Midnight Moon What time is it on?
Tamara: It’s on at 12 o’clock or at (9) _
Mario:Is it on this evening?
Tamara: Yes, at 7:30
Mario:Perfect Let’s go at 7:30.
Tamara: OK, shall we meet at the cinema at 7:00?
Mario: Great! See you later
Tamara: Bye
PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)
I Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others (3 points)
1 A killed B listened C perfected D preferred
2 A skyscraper B university C leisure D most
II Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest ( 2points)
2 A polluted B continent C beautiful D weather
PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points)
I Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences (10 points)
1 “ don’t you go with us to the stadium this weekend?” “That’s a good idea”
2 I think it is a very nice town the weather is good and the people are friendly
3 I _to Ho Chi Minh city twice
4 I went to the cinema with my friends yesterday _ feeling very tired
Trang 35 Lan is the _of the two girls.
6 You can watch Hary Potter on TV _ you can read it
7 The children _to the zoo
8 The you start, the _you will finish
A soon / early B sooner / earlier C sooner / early D soonest / earliest
9 My brother wants to become a to tell TV viewers what the weather is like
10 This is the first time that I this kind of good
II Find and correct the mistake in each of the following sentences (5 points)
1 Let’s play soccer, do we ?
2 I give him the key as soon as he returns
3 Playing football is one of the most common way of relaxing
4 My mother is tired in doing the same things every day
5 Many people were serious injured in the accident yesterday
III Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5 points)
1 We wish you both health and (LONG EVAL)
2 Mai has got a great you’ll really like her (PERSON)
3 The students were prepared for the exam (CARE)
4 He laughed at their (STUPID)
5 Hoai Linh is a famous _in Viet Nam (COMEDY)
IV Find in the bracket with a suitable preposition (5 points)
1 Tet is a joyful time the country
2 The ambulance will be there about 10 minutes
3 Mr Lan goes to work her car every day
4 She is interested _reading picture books
5 Slow down ! You’re walking more quickly than me and I can’t keep
V Give the correct forms or tenses of the verbs in brackets (5 points)
1 My brother together with his friends often (jog) in the park
2 Your room looks tidy You (tidy) it ?
3 Eating fruit and vegetables (be) very healthy
4 This house (rebuild) last year
Trang 45 My little brother enjoys (take) to the zoo my my parents.
PART D READING (20 points)
I Fill each of the blank spaces with one suitable word (5 points)
There are two main kinds of sports: (1) _ sports and individual sports Team sports (2) such sports as baseball, basketball and volleyball Team sports require two separate teams The teams play (3) _ each other They compete again each other in order to get the best scores (4) _ example in a football game, if team A gets 4 points and team B (5) 2
points, team A wins the game Team sports are sometimes called competitive sports
II Read the passage and choose the bes answer ( A, B, C, or D) to each space ( 10 points ).
In Viet Nam, Tet is a national and family (1) _It is an occation for every Vietnamese to (2) a good time while (3) about the last year and the next year At Tet, spring (4) _ are organized; streets and public buildings are (5) _decorated and almost all shops are (6) _with people shopping for Tet At home, everything is (7) special food is (8) _; offerings of good foods, fresh water and flowers are
made on the family altar with burning joss – sticks scenting the air
Tet is a time for peace and (9) _During Tet, children often behave well, and friends, relatives and neighbours give each other their best (10) _ for the new year.
III Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each question ( 5 points )
My name is Adele and this is my husband, Jonh We both work in offices in Paris We have breakfast at half past seven We don’t have a big breakfast We usually have bread, coffee and orange juice
For lunch we usually have a salad or soup and sandwich That’s at about 1.30
We usually have dinner at half past seven in the evening It is a big meal of the day and we have meat or fish with vegetables and potatoes or rice We have orange juice with the milk On Saturday evenings we go to a restaurant for dinner at about eight o’clock
1 Adele and Jonh have
A a big breakfast B a light breakfast C breakfast with meat D breakfast with eggs
Trang 52 What do they have for lunch?
A salad with sandwich B salad and soup C soup and fish D sandwich and fish
3 What time do they usually have dinner?
4 What do they drink for dinner?
A iced tea B iced coffee C orange juice D soda
5 Where do they have dinner on Saturday evenings?
A at home B at a hotel C at their friend’s house D at a restaurant
PART E WRITING (25 points)
I Compete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one (10 points)
1 How heavy was your son last year ?
How _?
2 He is a slower and more careful driver than I am
He drives
3 You shouldn’t stay up so late to listen to music
It’s better to avoid _
4 In spite of his intelligence, he doesn’t do well at school
Although
5 When did you buy the computer ?
How long is
II Using the word given, complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first Do not change the word given (10 points)
1 We’d better buy a new cooker ( TIME )
_
2 We mustn’t throw rubbish ( WRONG )
_
3 I advise you to revise the lesson carefully for the exam ( HAD BETTER )
4 The Haunted Theatre is frightening Children love it ( ALTHOUGH)
5 She enjoys going out with her friends at weekend ( FOND )
III Use suggested word to made meaningful sentences (5 points)
1 Hoa / interested / read / books / Mai / too //
2 You / have / good / computer / than / this? //
Trang 63 Careful / you’ll / hurt / yourself //
4 Nam / intelligent / student / our / class //
5 I / not meet / uncle / since / I / leave / hometown //
The end
(Đề thi gồm có 06 trang)