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Bộ 5 đề thi HK2 môn Tiếng Anh 10 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Nguyễn Siêu

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.. Câu 29: [r]

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TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYẾN SIÊU

ĐỀ THI HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2020-2021

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 (Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)

1 Đề số 1

A LISTENING (2 points)

You are going to listen to this telephone conversation between JON and JANICE and

answer the questions You should write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer You will hear the recording TWICE

Areas dealt with: (1) , North

suburbs

Rent: from (2) £ to £ 500 a month Depends on:

the area

availability (3) garage

Properties available: West Park Road: rent (4) £ a month, including the

water bill

Tithe Road: rent £ 380 a month, including

(5) rental

Viewing arrangements: meet at office on (6) afternoon at

5.00 pm

Need: letter from bank, reference from your

(7)

Must: give (8) notice of moving in give deposit

of one-month-pay for contract

B PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (4 points)

I Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the

other words

1 A Club B Lamb C Doubt D Bomber (U10)

2 A Disease B Spread C Breed D Treat (U10)

II Choose the word whose main stress is different from that of the other words

1 A Organism B Environment C Temperature D Satellite (U9)

2 A Secret B Ocean C Migrate D Express (U9)

III Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following

sentences

1 is traditional music from a particular country, region, or community

A Blues B Classical music C Folk music D Jazz (U12)

2 “Tien Quan Ca”, the Viet Nam national was written by Van Cao

A folk song B anthem C epic D pop song (U12)

3 “Silence of the Lambs” is a film It makes the audience scared

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A disaster B science fiction C horror D action (U13)

4 Charlie Chaplin is considered as the greatest comic actor of the

A musical cinema B commercial film C romantic comedy D silent

cinema (U13)

5 The was injured so a defender had to go in goal

A attacker B goal-scorer C opponent D goalkeeper (U14)

6 The World Cup every four years

A is held B have held C holds D was held (U14)

7 The city of London was by the Romans in the year 43 AD

A located B developed C founded D

characterized (U15)

8 People come to the parks to from city noise and traffic

A get away B get out of C get over D get off (U15)

9 is a chemical used for killing-weeds

A Pesticide B Herbicide C Fertilizer D Antibiotic (U9)

10 Jim wanted to know call and tell him where to meet you

A you could B whether you can C if you could D when could you (U9)

IV Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D the one that is SIMILAR in meaning to the

underlined word

1 The cattle drank from a river polluted with toxic chemicals

A waste B colorless C odorless D poisonous (U11)

2 Wastes are poured into the atmosphere, the air becomes contaminated and unpleasant to

breathe

A dense B dirty C thirsty D important (U11)

3 READING (2 points)

I Fill in each blank space with one appropriate from the box There are more provided

words than needed

the other attacked fish contests soup

We know that every year less than 100 people are (1) by sharks and about 5 to 10 of these people die But, let’s look at the (2) side of the story – How many sharks do

people kill? Well I think you already know this: People kill many more sharks Every year,

people hunt and kill thousands of sharks One reason people kill sharks is for sport; they

hunt them just for fun Some people started to have (3) to see who kill the most

sharks or he bigger sharks Another reason that people kill sharks is for food In some

countries, such as the United States and Great Britain, shark meat is a popular food In other

countries, such as China, people use shark fins to make (4) Because so many

people like to eat shark, fishing boats catch a lot of sharks to sell for food

II Read the following passage and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D provided

In the United States and its territories alone, there are more than 40 national parks, varying

considerably in landscape and mood Each park was chosen for its unique features,

representative of a particular region of the country Everglades National Park, for example, at

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the southern tip of Florida, is a huge subtropical swamp, which provides refuge for such unusual reptiles as the alligator and for thousands of varieties of birds, including the graceful pink

flamingo In sharp contrast to the Everglades are the arid, dusty parks of the West Mesa Verde National Park in Colorado, for example, preserves the ruins of an Indian civilization which

flourished in the twelfth and thirteenth centuries Today, tourists can wander through the

awesome cliff dwellings that the Indians carved out of the steep rock

1 What is the main idea of the passage?

A The large number of nation parks B National parks as a wildlife refuge

C The diversity of the national parks D The differences between countries

2 National parks in the US _

A are a lot different from each other B change a lot in landscape and mood

C are made more interesting D are the same as other parks in the world

3 Everglades National Park is _

A in the south of the United States B home to alligators and many birds

C an area of land that is full of water D all are correct

4 The word which in the passage refers to _

A Mesa B the ruins C Indian D civilization

4 WRITING (2 points)

I Rewrite each of the following sentences without changing its original meaning (1

point)

1 They will hold the meeting before May Day

The meeting

2 He spent two hours writing the essay

It took _

3 We’ve never talked to an interesting person like you before

Never before _

4 The store was opened in 1932 by John

John

II In about 80-100 words, write a letter to a friend to talk about your typical day (1 point)

-Hết -

ĐÁP ÁN

A LISTENING (2 points) (0.25 point per one correct item)

1 (the) city centre/ center (itself) 5 (the) telephone/ phone

B PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (2 points)

I (0.25 point per one correct item): 1 A 2 B

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II (0.25 point per one correct item): 1 B 2 D

III (0.25 point per one correct item):

IV (0.25 point per one correct item): 1 D 2 C

C READING (2 points)

I (0.25 point per one correct item):

II (0.25pt/item)

D WRITING (2 points)

I (0.25 point per one correct sentence):

1 The meeting will be held before May Day

2 It took him two hours to write the essay

3 Never before have we talked to an interesting person like you

4 John opened the store in 1932

II (1 point)

Bố cục (0.4 point)

o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc

o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài

o Câu kết luận phù hợp

0.1 point 0.2 points 0.1 point

Nội dung (0.4 point)

o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic, Đủ thuyết phục người đọc

o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận

o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%

0.1 points 0.1 points 0.2 point

Sử dụng ngôn ngữ

(0.2 point)

o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung, văn phong/ thể loại

o Sử dụng ngôn từ phong phú, ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả chính xác

0.1 point 0.1 point Cách tính lỗi:

Lỗi chính tả/ngữ pháp/ từ vựng gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi – 0.05 point

(Cùng một lỗi lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi)

2 Đề số 2

I Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest

Câu 2: A abandoned B established C borrowed D threatened

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Câu 3: A crooked B booked C looked D cooked

Câu 4: A population B national C question D station

II Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose from the best answer to complete each sentence

Câu 6: , he kept on smoking

A In spite he has bad cough B In spite of his bad cough

Câu 7: These flowers are fresh They from the garden

Câu 8: John: I’m really tired resting before we go out?

Claire: That’s good idea I’m tired too

A How about B Shall we C Why don’t we D Let’s

Câu 9: She sometimes does not have enough time to take care _her old parents

Câu 10: Nearly 1,000 of the world's bird species are threatened with

A destruction B appearance C protection D extinction

Câu 11: At the weekend, the beach is often crowded people

Câu 12: Ann: “Would you like to have lunch with us?”

Beck: “ .”

A You are welcome B Yes, I'd love to C Not at all D Thank you

Câu 13: I will never talk to you again you apologize me your being so rude

A unless/ for B whether/ of C if/ for D or/ of

Câu 14: Many plants and animals can be used as medicine _ cancer, AIDS and other

sicknesses

Câu 15: The teacher had divided the students small groups before they did their task

Câu 16: Sperm whale populations are at risk hunting and their accidental entrapment in

fishing nets

Câu 17: Some plants and animals are referred to as organisms because they are

extremely small

Câu 18: These plants cannot in your garden It never gets any sun

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A survivor B surviving C survive D survived

Câu 19: Sperm whales are , which means they eat meat

Câu 20: air makes people unpleasant to breathe

A Pollution. B Polluting C Pollute D Polluted

Câu 21: Lan: I'm leaving for lunch ?

Mai: Thanks, but I can't right now I'm really busy

C Could you come D Do you feel like going

Câu 22: Some animals are on the of becoming extinct

Câu 23: If I had had enough money, I a dictionary

Câu 24: I to parties very often

A don’t invite B not invited C not invite D am not invited

Câu 25: I think you apologize for your bad behaviour

III Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase CLOSEST

in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences

Câu 26: Contamination is threatening the park and many species of animals living in it

A distribution B pollution C elimination D population

Câu 27: The society was set up to preserve endangered species from extinction

Câu 28: People in this region cultivate mainly rice and vegetables

IV Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences

Câu 29: The floor was covered with tiny pieces of paper

Câu 30: We had an accidental meeting with an old friend at the party last night

A expected B unacceptable C unpleasant D unlucky

V Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that needs correction

Câu 31: We could have given you a lift if we had know you were coming this way

Câu 32: We haven’t seen Jim since he has returned the countryside

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Câu 33: They also learn about the habits of animals and how one species is dependent upon

another for surviving

Câu 34: Were Mr Morgan still head teacher, he would not permit such bad behave

A behave B Were Mr Morgan C would D such

Câu 35: I don’t have many time to prepare for the job interview

VI Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence that has the closest meaning to the given one

Câu 36: It was only because his wife helped him that he was able to finish his book

A If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book

B But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book

C Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book

D If only he had been able to finish his book

Câu 37: I didn’t know that Lam had to get up early, so I didn’t wake him

A If I had known that Lam had to get up early, I would have woken him up

B If I know that Lam have to get up early, I will wake him up

C If I knew that Lam had to get up early, I would wake him up

D If I knew that Lam had to get up early, I would have woken him up

Câu 38: Unless this biodiversity were maintained, marine life would be at stake

A If this biodiversity were maintained, marine life would be at stake

B If this biodiversity weren’t maintained, marine life would be at stake

C If this biodiversity were maintained, marine life wouldn’t be at stake

D If this biodiversity weren’t maintained, marine life wouldn’t be at stake

Câu 39: They have robbed the bank near my house

A The bank near my house has been robbed

B The bank near my house have been robbed

C The bank near my house has not been robbed

D Near my house has been robbed the bank

Câu 40: “Would you like to come to my birthday party, Mary?” said Mike

A Mike didn’t know that Mary had come to his birthday party

B Mike asked Mary if she didn’t like to come to his birthday party

C Mike invited Mary to come to his birthday party

D Mike was told to come to Mary’s birthday party

VII Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to best completes the passage

The Meadow Park Zoo, which (41) three months ago, is already attracting large numbers of visitors The new zoo is quite small, compared with other similar (42) _ You

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won’t find any large and dangerous animals such as lions or tigers in cages Instead, there is a children’s zoo, where children can handle little animals like rabbits and (43) They can also have rides on a camel or an elephant The zoo had a working farm, too, with cows, sheep, ducks and chickens

Lots of children from cities don’t understand what happens (44) a farm It’s important (45) them to see for themselves where their milk and eggs come from

Câu 42: A attractions B parties C schools D events

VIII Read the passage and complete the sentences Mark the letter A, B, C r D on your answer sheet

Once there were lots of pandas in the mountains of Western China Today they are becoming extinct The reason is they cannot find enough food Pandas eat bamboo leaves They do not like another food The bamboo grows very slowly It can take ten years for a bamboo to grow from a seed to a big plant Some types of bamboo have seeds only once every 60 years Pandas must wait many years for their food to grow While the bamboo is growing, pandas do not have enough leaves to eat Farmers are using more and more of the land on the mountain side to grow food for man The farmers cut down the bamboo Bamboo leaves become less plentiful Pandas

cannot find enough food to eat They starve and die China and World Wildlife Fund (WWF) are

trying to save the pandas In 1979 they began to set up special parks where pandas can live One such park is the Wolong Reserve in Sichuan The Wolong Reserve has the highest number

of pandas in the world Scientists come here to study the pandas’ eating and mating habits By learning more about the pandas’ habits, scientists can save them from extinction

Câu 46: What is the main food of pandas?

Câu 47: How long does it take a bamboo to grow into a big plant?

Câu 48: Why do farmers cut bamboo trees?

A To get farmland B To make pandas starve and die

Câu 49: What do scientists do to save pandas from extinction?

A They study about pandas’ habits

B They only set up parks for them

C They plant bamboo trees and set up parks for them

D They put them in bamboo forest

Câu 50: What does the word “They” refer to?

-

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- HẾT -

ĐÁP ÁN 1C 2B 3A 4C 5B 6B 7D 8A 9C 10D 11A 12B 13A 114B 15D 16D 17D 18C 19C 20D 21B 22A 23D 24D 25C 26B 27B 28C 29D 30A 31C 32D 33D 34A 35C 36C 37A 38B 39A 40C 41A 42A

43B 44B 45A 46D 47C 48A 49A 50B

3 Đề số 3

II READING: (3.0 points)

Part 1: Read the message and notices and then, choose the correct explanation (1.0

point)

11

Peter,

When you come back from school,

remember to cook dinner Phone me if

you don’t bring the door key

Susan

Why has Susan emailed Peter ?

A to remind him to do something

B to give him the door key

C to let him know that she will cook dinner

12

All meals HALF-PRICE

5-6 p.m

A You pay more to eat at this time

B You don’t have to pay to eat at this time

C You pay less to eat at this time

13

Under 12s swimming course

Saturday 10 a.m

A This is only for students

A

C This is only for adults

14

YORK MUSEUM Mon-Fri: £5 Sat- Sun: £2/ Students free

Students do not have to pay to go here

A on Satudays

B At weekends

C everyday

Part 2: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each blank (1.0 point)

Cuc Phuong, the first national park in Viet Nam, was oficially opened 1960 It (15) ……… 160 kilometers south west of Ha Noi spanning Ninh Binh, Hoa Binh and Thanh Hoa provinces Cuc Phuong National Park contains over 200 square kilometers of rainforest It attracts (16)

………… tourists and scientists In 2002, nearly 100,000 visitors made their way to Cuc

Phuong Tourists come there to study butterflies, visit caves, hike mountains and look at the

(17) ….… tree Many come to see the work being done to protect endangered species

According, to scientists, there are about 2,000 different species (18) ……… and 450 species of fauna in the park

15 A is located B is locating C locates D located

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16 A every B both C neither D either

17 A 1,000 year old B 1,000 years C 1,000-year-old D 1,000-years-old

18 A vegetation B flowers C trees D flora

Part 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer

sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions(1.0 point)

THE WORLD CUP

World Cup is the most important competition in international football, and the world's most

representative team sport event Organized by Federation International de Football Association (FIFA), the sport’s governing body; the World Cup is contested by men's national football teams which are FIFA members The World Cup is held every four years (except in times of war), but

the elimination rounds of the competition (which narrows the field of as many as 197 teams

down to the final 32 teams) take place over a three-year period, using regional elimination

tournaments

The “the final tournament” phrase (often called the "Finalists") involves 32 national

teams competing over a four-week period in a previously nominated host nation Only seven

nations have won the World Cup Finals The most recent football World Cup was held in

Germany between June 9 and July 10, 2006 The World Cup Finals is the most widely viewed

and followed sporting event in the world The final match of the 2006 World Cup was watched

by more than one billion people

19 Where was the 2006 World cup held?

A United States B Germany C French D Brazil

20 How many national teams take part in the final tournament?

A 52 B 81 C 197 D 32

21 What does the “FIFA” mean?

A Federation International Football Association

B Federation International de Football Associations

C Federation International de Football Association

D Federation Internation de Football Association

22 Which countries have became the champion in the World Cup Finals?

A.West Germany, Argentina, England B Brazil and Italy

C Uraguay and France D All are correct

IV WRITING (2,5p)

Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one

1 No student in the class is smaller than Jonathan

Jonathan

2 He didn’t learn hard so he couldn’t pass the exam

If I had

Part 2: Write an announcement, using the cues given below

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