Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.. Perry[r]
Trang 1ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN TUẦN 3- NGHỈ HỌC PHÒNG DỊCH CORONA
PRACTICE TEST 9Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 2: A confide B install C kidding D rim
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3: A romantic B attitude C important D attractive
Question 4: A attract B polite C promise D approach
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 5: The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that
have become extinct have increased
Question 6: Caroline refused taking the job given to her because the salary was not good
Question 7: The General Certificate of Secondary Education (GCSE) is the name of a set of
English qualifications, generally taking by secondary students at the age of 15-16 in England
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions
Question 8: The old woman accused the boy _ window
A in breaking B on breaking C at breaking D of breaking
Question 9: The more you study during semester, _ the week before the exam
A you have to study the less B the less you have to study
C the least you have to study D the study less you have
Question 10: Neither the students nor their lecturer _ English in the classroom
Question 11: In order to make the house more beautiful and newer, the Browns had it
_ yesterday
A to be repainted B repaint C repainted D to repaint
Question 12: Last summer, he _ to Ha Long Bay
A went B has been going C has gone D was going
Question 13: Universities send letters of _ to successful candidates by post
A accept B acceptance C acceptably D acceptable
Question 14: Many people lost their homes in the earthquake The government needs to
establish more shelters to care for those _ have homes
A which doesn’t B who doesn’t C which don’t D who don’t
Question 15: I love _ films but I seldom find time to go to the cinema
Question 16: We’re going to freeze out here if you don’t let us _ the bus
Trang 2A come up B go into C take off D get on
Question 17: I saw him hiding something in a _ bag
A black small plastic B plastic small black C small plastic black D small black plastic Question 18: George won five medals at the competition His parents _ very proud
of him
A could have been B can’t have C can’t be D must have been Question 19: She spent _ her free time watching TV
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges
Question 20: Carol is wearing a new dress and Helen loves it
- Helen: “ _”
- Carol: “Thanks I’m glad you like it My sister give it to me yesterday.”
A What a fashionable dress you are wearing! B Oh! I like your fashionable dress
C I think you have a fashionable dress D Your fashionable must be expensive Question 21: Harry and Mai are talking about their plan for the weekend
Harry: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this weekend?”
Mai: “ _”
C I don’t agree, I’m afraid D I feel very bored
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 22: That is the instance where big, obvious non-verbal signals are appropriate
A matter B place C attention D situation
Question 23: My close friend, Lan, helps me when I am in need
A sends money B gives a hand C buys a book D gives care
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 24: The Vietnamese consider it rude to interrupt a person while he is talking
A bad mannered B polite C uneducated D ignorant
Question 25: Differently from English taught to all Vietnamese students, Chinese and Russian
have been made optional languages taught at secondary schools in Vietnam
A compulsory B important C comfortable D necessary
Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: People say that he was born in London
A That is said he was born in London B He was said to be born in London
C He is said to have been born in London D It was said that he was born in London Question 27: We started working here three years ago
A We have worked here for three years
B We worked here for three years
C We will work here for three years
D We have no longer worked here for three years
Question 28: Kevin put a fence so that people didn’t walk on his garden
Trang 3A Kevin put a fence because he wants to remind people to walk on his garden
B Kevin put a fence to prevent people from walking on his garden
C In order to tell people to walk on his garden, Kevin put a fence
D So as to encourage people to walk on his garden, Kevin put a fence
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the following questions
Question 29: The old man is working in this factory I borrowed his bicycle yesterday
A The old man whom is working in this factory, I borrowed his bicycle yesterday
B The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory
C The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory
D The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday
Question 30: The film was not interesting However, he tried to watch the whole film
A In spite of the film uninteresting, he tried to watch the whole film
B Uninteresting as the film was, he tried to watch the whole film
C Despite of uninteresting film, he tried to watch the whole film
D Uninteresting as was the film, he tried to watch the whole film
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks
BRINGING THE LEARNING OUTDOORS
Kindergarten is a fun place (31) young children learn In some special
kindergartens, children learn outside most of the day! Some kindergartens are (32) the forest In these "forest kindergartens," children play freely They're outside in all kinds of weather At forest kindergartens, children learn by climbing trees and picking fruit They also learn about and (33) animals For example, they collect chicken eggs and feed baby mice Little Flower Kindergarten is in Dong Nai, Vietnam At this school, children learn about farming They also learn that it is important (34) healthy food They grow
vegetables in gardens on the roof! They eat the vegetables they grow in their lunches At Fuji Kindergarten in Tokyo, Japan, trees grow inside the building! The classroom windows and sliding
doors (35) open to the outside most of the year The roof is a big, wooden circle Children love to play and run on it
Question 31: A why B when C where D which
Question 33: A take care of B take over C take on D take after
Question 34: A to eat B eating C ate D eaten
Question 35: A make B stay C do D be
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Southern Thailand was hit by the most severe haze from forest fires in Indonesia, forcing all schools in a province to close and disrupting flights in a popular tourist area,
officially said
The haze that has shrouded parts of Malaysia and Singapore for nearly two months reached hazardous levels in the southern Thai city of Songkhla, with the pollution index hitting a
Trang 4record-high reading of 365 A reading of 101-200 is unhealthy, 201-300 is very unhealthy and above 300 is hazardous
“This is a crisis,” said Halem Jemarican, head of the Southern Environment Office He said the pollution index in southern Thailand has never exceeded 300 before Halem said his office hadworked with other authorities to have all schools in Songkhla province send studentshome and all outdoor sports stadiums to close temporarily Warnings have been issued to
vulnerable people such as children, the elderly and people with illnesses not to go out of their
Local media reported that cloud seeding has been discussed as a way to dispel the haze in
southern Thailand, which is hundreds of kilometers (miles) from the forest fires in Indonesia's Sumatra island
Southern Thailand boasts tropical beaches popular among tourists in Surat Thani and Phuket, two of the seven provinces suffering from the haze
Question 36: The word "dispel" in the passage is closest in meaning to
Question 37: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
A The pollution index in southern Thailand used to exceed 300
B Seven provinces in Thailand suffered from the haze
C The haze reached a hazardous level in the city of Songkhla
D The local authorities warned the citizens against going out
Question 38: The following actions are taken by the authorities in response to the haze
EXCEPT
A closing sports stadiums B sending students home
Question 39: The word "their" in the passage refers to
A vulnerable people B the elderly C students D stadiums
Question 40: What is the event reported in the news?
A Southern Thailand was hit by the haze from Indonesia
B People suffered because of the haze from Indonesia
C The flights were disrupted by the haze on Thursday
D The haze from Indonesia was the worst ever last year
Question 41: The haze stayed longer in the southern Thailand because of
A the fine particles of dust in the air B the tropical weather in the area
C the high pollution index D the low speed of the wind
Question 42: What is the main idea of paragraph 2?
A Thailand is the most polluted country in Asia
B Thailand's pollution index reads 201-300
C The haze reached a dangerous level
D People living in Songkhla do a lot of reading
Trang 5Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Marianne Moore (1887-1972) once said that her writing could be called poetry only because there was no other name for it Indeed her poems appear to be extremely compressed essays that happen to be printed in jagged lines on the page Her subject were varied: animals, laborers, artists, and the craft of poetry From her general reading came quotations that she found striking or insightful She included these in her poems, scrupulously enclosed in
quotation marks, and sometimes identified in footnotes Of this practice, she wrote, " 'Why many quotation marks?' I am asked When a thing has been so well that it could not be said better, why paraphrase it? Hence, my writing is, if not a cabinet of fossils, a kind of collection
of flies in amber." Close observation and concentration on detail and the methods of her
poetry
Marianne Moore grew up in Kirkwood, Missouri, near St Lois After graduation from Bryn Mawr College in 1909, she taught commercial subjects at the Indian School in Carlisle, Pennsylvania Later she became a librarian in New York City During the 1920’s she was
editor of The Dial, an important literary magazine of the period She lived quietly all her life,
mostly in Brooklyn, New York She spent a lot of time at the Bronx Zoo, fascinated by
animals Her admiration of the Brooklyn Dodgers-before the team moved to Los Angeles was widely known Her first book of poems was published in London in 1921 by a group of friendsassociated with the Imagism movement From that time on, her poetry has been read with
interest by succeeding generations of poets and readers In 1952 she was awarded the Pulitzer
Prize for her Collected Poems She wrote that she did not write poetry "for money or fame To
earn a living is needful, but it can be done in routine ways One writes because one has a
burning desire to objectify what is indispensable to one's happiness to express
Question 43: The word "succeeding" in line 19 is closest to _
A inheriting B prospering C diverse D later
Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that Moore wrote because she _
A wanted to win awards B was dissatisfied with what others wrote
C felt a need to express herself D wanted to raise money for the Bronx Zoo Question 45: What is the passage mainly about?
A Essayists and poets of the 1920's
B The use of quotations in poetry
C Marianne Moore's life and work
D The influence of the imagists on Marianne Moore
Question 46: Where did Moore grow up?
A In Kirkwood B In Brooklyn C In Carlisle D In Los Angeles
Question 47: Which of the following can be inferred about Moore's poems?
A They do not use traditional verse forms
B They are better known in Europe than the United States
C They were all published in The Dial
D They tend to be abstract
Question 48: The author mentions all of the following as jobs held by Moore EXCEPT
_
A teacher B magazine editor C commercial artist D librarian
Question 49: According to the passage Moore wrote about all of the following EXCEPT
_
Trang 6A workers B animals C fossils D artists
Question 50: The word "it" in line 19 refers to _
A writing poetry B becoming famous C earning a living D attracting readers
PRACTICE TEST 10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A research B resent C resemble D resist
Question 2: A jumped B traveled C stared D seemed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A economy B presentation C accompany D successfully Question 4: A deliver B promotion C average D essential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 5: Drying food by means of solar energy is an ancient process applying wherever
climatic conditions make it possible
A means of B applying C Drying D make it possible
Question 6: More and 90 percent of the calcium in the human body is in the skeleton
Question 7: Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class
should be for the students to practice speaking words
A objective of any B speaking words C should be D Regardless of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions
Question 8: I regret going to the cinema I wish I
A hadn’t gone there B haven’t gone there C didn’t go there D would not go there Question 9: He may be quick understanding but he isn't capable remembering
anything
Question 10: Vitamin D is necessary to aid the of calcium from food
A absorption B absorbent C absorbance D absorbency
Question 11: The were told to fasten their seat belts as the plane began its descent
A flyers B customers C passengers D riders
Question 12: I get quite depressed when I think about the damage we are to the
environment
Question 13: Unfortunately, we’ve made
A little progress B a few progresses C little progresses D few progress
Question 14: , Mozart was an accomplished compose while still a child
Trang 7A Remarkable as it seems B As it seems remarkable
C No matter remarkable it seems D Remarkable however it seem
Question 15: parents of Thomas claimed that he was at time of
robbery
A The-the-the B X-X-the C The-X-X D X-X-a
Question 16: Like most marine mammals and land mammals, whales are creatures
A blood-warmed B warm-blood C warm-blooded D warm-blooding
Question 17: We insist that more money in education
A investing B invested C invests D be invested
Question 18: Certainly, man must the future, and find ways of providing for his need
A look for B put off C put on D look to
Question 19: After I from college, I as a teacher
A had graduated/ worked B had graduated/ work
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges
Question 20: John: “You’re already leaving? The ball is only starting.”
Mary: “But it is very late, so .”
A it’s great fun B take care C goodbye for now D have a good day
Question 21: Daisy: “ ?”
Mary: “No, that’s about it for now.”
A Nothing to declare B When can we stop
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 22: Such problems as haste and inexperience are a universal feature of youth
Question 23: I stayed there with her for a while before I left
A in the difficult time B whenever she needed me
C for relaxation D for a short period of time
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 24: I am glad that we see eye to eye on the matter of the conference location
Question 25: I don’t want to live in this filthy colony
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 26: Apart from being conveniently located near the beach, that hotel has nothing
about it to make me recommend it to you
A The only feature of that hotel that I can recommend to you is that it’s close to the beach
B The hotel I’ve recommended to you is very comfortable as it is near the beach.
C The beach near that hotel doesn’t have anything special that I can recommend to you
D As regards a hotel, nothing is more important for me than its being close to the beach
Trang 8Question 27: Although she was very old, she looked very grateful
A In spite of very old, she looked very grateful
B Despite she was very old, she looked very grateful
C Despite her old age, she looked very grateful
D In spite her being old, she looked very grateful
Question 28: “Why don’t you ask your parents for advice?” said Tom
A Tom advised me asking my parents for advice
B Tom said to me to ask my parents for advice
C Tom wanted to know the reason why I don’t ask my parents for advice
D Tom suggested that I ask my parents for advice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 29: Farmers depend on meteorologists They need meteorologists’ accurate forecasts
for successful agricultural planning
A Due to meteorologists’ accurate forecasts, farmers depend on them for successful
agricultural planning
B Farmers depend on meteorologists who need their accurate forecasts for successful
agricultural planning
C Farmers need meteorologists’ accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning and so
they depend on you
D Farmers depend on meteorologists, whose accurate forecasts they need for successful
agricultural planning
Question 30: Sports clear my mind They also help me maintain a healthy lifestyle
A My mind is cleared so is the maintenance of a healthy lifestyle
B Not only do sports clear my mind, but they also help me maintain a healthy lifestyle
C Sports clear my mind so that I can maintain a healthy lifestyle
D All that sports can do is to clear my mind instead of maintaining a healthy lifestyle
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 31 to 35
Swim, Cycle, and Run
For athletes who like to (31) a variety of endurance sports in a single race, triathlons are a great fit These competitions (32) running, cycling, and swimming into one race, and they take place one after the other in a single continuous timed race Athletes who participate must be in top physical form and have the skills needed to complete each portion of the race
Training for triathlons means the athletes have to become proficient not only in the sport required in each stage, but they also have to become familiar with what (33) fromone to the other does to their bodies Many inexperienced triathletes are surprised to (34) hard it can be to switch from swimming to cycling to running, and how tired their muscles can suddenly feel One thing all triathletes can agree (35) is that no one ever told them that running a triathlon would be easy
Question 31: A compete B compete in C contest D take part
Question 32: A combine B join C fasten D connect
Question 33: A transference B transition C transmission D transport Question 34: A find what B find out why C find out how D find how
Trang 9Question 35: A in B with C at D on
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42
Productivity Hacks for Great Success
No matter who we are or where we are from, we only have 24 hours each day to get things done Some people seem to make the most of their time, using it to achieve their goals and dreams Others feel that life is passing them by and they aren’t accomplishing anything If you are in the latter group, it is not too late to turn things around By implementing a few simple hacks, you can start getting better results very quickly
If you want to become more productive, it pays to learn about the Pareto principle (which is also known as the 80-20 rule) It states that for most tasks, 80 percent of the results
we get come from 20 percent of the work we do For example 80 percent of the company sales usually come from 20 percent of customers Therefore, the trick is to focus your efforts
on the key 20 percent of actions that truly matter to greatly improve your results
In some cases, people may be busy from morning to night but still seem to get nothing
done In this situation, the problem might be that clear goals haven’t been set To fix this, set
some time aside to list the things you want to achieve in life Then, select the top three or four that you want to focus on for the next year Look at your goals every night before bedtime and ask yourself what are the next actions to accomplish each day Then, promise yourself that youwill finish these tasks no matter how busy you get If possible try completing the tasks first thing in the morning so you are assured of success
Another common mistake regarding productivity is not considering our energy levels If
we try to work around the clock, we will eventually get tired and quit Everyone needs time to sleep, eat, socialize with friends, and unwind from the stress of the day To make sure you don’t burn out, be sure to schedule some time for breaks and fun activities into your schedule
every day Finally, no matter how difficult your goals may seem, remember the old saying that “a journey of a thousand miles begins with a single step”
Question 36: What is implied in the last sentence of the passage?
A It is best to take a big first step
B Start moving toward your dreams little by little
C Think twice before taking any steps
D People get their best ideas when traveling
Question 37: In order to achieve our goals, we should
A select the most important goals for each day and take the priority to achieve them within the
day
B eat a lot to burn enough energy for our daily activities
C set the goals just before bedtime in order to remember them better
D set as many goals as possible so that we can achieve some of them or at least 20 percent Question 38: Which of the following statements does the author support most?
A How difficult our goals may seem, we should take steps to travel a thousand miles to
Trang 10D.We need time to sleep, eat, socialize with friends, and achieve our goals for 20 percent of
the day’s time
Question 39: The word “this” in paragraph 3 refers to
A a lack of time B setting no aims C clear goals D failing in business
Question 40: The phrase “hacks for” in the title is closest in meaning to
A leads to B cut off C secretly achieve D kicks without control
Question 41: Which of the following sentences is true?
A No one ever achieves all of their goals B Everyone has the same time in a day
C No one has any spare time these days D Everyone manages time the same way Question 42: What is the Pareto principle?
A If you work hard 80 percent of the time, you can relax for 20 percent
B A few important things produce most of the results
C You need to do lots of work to increase sales by 20 percent
D Companies don’t need to hire more than 80 people
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Carbon dating can be used to estimate the age of any organic natural material; it has
been used successfully in archeology to determine the age of ancient artifacts or fossils as well
as in a variety of other fields The principle underlying the use of carbon dating is that carbon
is a part of all living things on Earth Since a radioactive substance such as carbon-14 has a known half-life, the amount of carbon-14 remaining in an object can be used to date that object
Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,570 years, which means that after that number of years, half of the carbon- 14 atoms have decayed into nitrogen-14 It is the ratio of carbon-14 in that
substance that indicates the age of the substance If, for example, in a particular sample the
amount of carbon-14 is roughly equivalent to the amount of nitrogen-14, this indicates that
around half of the carbon-14 has decayed into nitrogen-14, and the sample is approximately 5,570 years old
Carbon dating cannot be used effectively in dating objects that are older than 80,000 years When objects are that old, much of the carbon-14 has already decayed into nitrogen-14, and the molecule amount that is left doesn’t provide a reliable measurement of age In the case
of older objects, other age-dating methods are available, methods which use radioactive atoms with longer half-lives than carbon has
Question 43: This passage is mainly about
A archeology and the study of ancient artifacts
B one method of dating old objects
C various uses for carbon
D the differences between carbon-14 and nitrogen-14
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT true about carbon-14?
A It and nitrogen always exist in equal amounts in any substance.
B Its half-life is more than 5,000 years
C It can decay into nitrogen-14
D It is radioactive
Question 45: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to
C any organic natural material D archeology
Trang 11Question 46: The word “underlying” could best be replaced by
C serving as a basis for D being studied through
Question 47: The word “roughly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A precisely B approximately C harshly D coarsely
Question 48: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
A what substances are part of all living things
B how carbon-14 decay intonitrogen.-14
C why carbon-14 has such a long half-life
D various other age-dating methods
Question 49: It is implied in the passage that
A carbon dating has no known uses outside of archeology
B fossils cannot be age-dated using carbon-14
C carbon dating could not be used on an item containing nitrogen
D carbon-14 does not have the longest known half-life
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that if an item contains more carbon-14 than
nitrogen-14, then the item is
A not as much as 5,570 years old B too old to be age-dated with carbon-14
C too radioactive to be used by archeologists D more than 5.570 years old
PRACTICE TEST 11Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in the following question
Question 1: A substantial B applicant C terrorist D industry
Question 2: A stagnant B tableland C survive D swallow
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the rest in the pronunciation in the following question
Question 3: A derived B requi red C blamed D coughed Question 4: A islander B alive C vacancy D habitat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question
Question 5: I’m afraid we no longer sell that model of laptop because we had a lot of
complaints
Question 6:Mrs Jekins was too ill to go out and pay her phone bill, and they’ve just cut
She ought to complain!
Question 7: There’s a lot violent crime in this area than there used to be
Question 8: The move to a different environment had brought about a significant in
Mary’s state of mind
A impact B effect C influence D change
Trang 12Question 9: The party leader traveled the length and of the country in an attempt to
spread his message
A width B distance C diameter D breadth
Question 10: The amount Sahra earned was on how much she sold
A dependence B dependant C dependent D independent
Question 11: They would go by air than spend a week traveling by train
A always B rather C prefer D better
Question 12: The party, I was the guest of honor, was extremely enjoyable
A at that B at which C to that D to which
Question 13: If only I play the guitar as well as you!
Question 14: The windows are in frames
A circular huge wooden B huge wooden circular
C wooden huge circular D huge circular wooden
Question 15: James was asking about a lot of personal things I didn’t like about my
private life
A asking B being asked C to ask D to be asking
Question 16: Vietnam U23 made not only Asia but also Europe keep a close eye on them
They internationally
A have made headlines B had made headlines
C have done headlines D did headlines
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence
Question 17: A US man with a large online following in Vietnam has caused widespread
anger, and faces possible criminal charges, over a Facebook post thought to have insulted a
military hero
A embarrassed B offended C confused D depressed
Question 18: Jack persisted in attempting to convince his employers to use more technology
and fewer people
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence
Question 19: The doctor asked John to exhale slowly
Question 20: The soldier was demoted for improper behavior
A promoted B lowered C resigned D let off
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to fill in the following exchange
Question 21: Ann and Mary are studying in their classroom
-Ann: “Can I borrow your dictionary?”
-Mary: “ ”
A I’m afraid I can’t B Here you are! C I think so D It doesn’t matter
Question 22: Jack and Joe are discussing how to make salad for dinner
-Jack: “ ”
Trang 13-Joe: “How about putting some grapes in it, instead?”
A We could fry some onions with it too B I’d rather just have some bread, thanks
C Let’s put some pieces of apple in the salad D Good idea! I’ll go and make one
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate words that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27
Chess, often (23) to as a Royal Game, is the oldest of all board games which donot contain an element of chance
The origins of chess are uncertain, (24) there are a number of legends regarding its invention One story says that it was King Solomon who invented chess, another says that it was the Greeks god Hermes, and yet another supposes that the Chinese mandarin, Han-Sing, was responsible for its creation In fact, chess almost certainly originated in India in the sixth
or seventh century AD The game’s popularity then spread
quickly through Persia (now known as Iran) and from there came to Europe The first
documented reference to chess in literature is in a Persia romance which was written about 600
AD
It is (25) the word ‘chess’ comes from ‘shah’, the Persian word for ‘King’ and that ‘checkmate’, the game’s winning (26) , comes from the phrase ‘shah mat’,
(27) ‘the king is dead’
The rules and pieces used in the game have undergone changes over the centuries Modern chess owes much to the Spaniard Lopez de Segura, who in 1561 wrote the first book
on how to play the game In it, he introduced the concept of ‘castling’, which has not been part
of the game until then
Question 23: A mentioned B called C known D referred
Question 24: A despite B nevertheless C although D however
Question 25: A believed B imagined C held D taken
Question 27: A representing B suggesting C intending D meaning
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34
Rain poured down on the roof I was trying to read but the sound was too loud I
couldn’t help myself from being a little grumpy I want to be outside playing, but the rain was
keeping me inside
My mom had gone to the grocery store, and my dad was spending Saturday at the office I had planned to spend the day hiking, but Mother Nature decided that today was the perfect day for rain
It meant that I would have to entertain myself I spent most of the morning playing with my stuffed animals and reading I was sitting next to the windows staring out when I got a strange idea: why not just go outside anyway?
I put on my boots and a big raincoat and stepped out into the wet world It was raining hard but
it wasn’t cold All I could hear were raindrops and the wind I decided to go on my hike
anyway
My feet didn’t make any sound on the wet ground and the forest seemed different I went to
my favourite place and sat down In the summer, my best friend Ellen and I would come here and sit for hours It was our special place All of a sudden, I thought I heard someone shouting
my name I turned and saw Ellen walking up behind me
Trang 14“Oh my Gosh! It’s really you, Martha!” She said “I can’t believe that you’re out here right now I thought I would be the only person crazy enough to go for a walk in the rain.”
I was very happy to have some company We decided that hiking in the rain was just as fun as
hiking in the sunshine We planned on hiking in the rain again
Question 28: What is the best title for the story?
C A Rainy Day Indoors D Rainy Day Homework
Question 29: The word “grumpy” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A stupid B bad - tempered C uninterested D unsatisfactory
Question 30: What was keeping Martha inside?
A The heat B Her parents C Bad weather D Lots of homework
Question 31: What does Martha mean when she says “It meant that I would have to entertain
myself”?
C She had to find something to do D She was bored with doing homework
Question 32: The word “company” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
Question 33: What did Martha think about being outside?
C It was very nice D It was too wet to walk
Question 34: What will Martha and Ellen probably do next time its rains?
C Go for another hike D Go to their friend’s house
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8
Life in the Universe
Exobiology is the study of life that originates from outside of Earth As yet, of course,
no such a life form has been found Exobiologists, however, have done important work in the theoretical study of where life is most likely to evolve, and what those extra-terrestrial life forms might be like
What sorts of planets are most likely to develop life? Most scientists are likely to agree that a habitable planet must be terrestrial, or rock-based, with liquid surface water and
biogeochemical cycles that somewhat resemble the continuous movement and transformation
of materials in the environment These cycles include the circulation of elements and nutrients upon which life and the Earth climate depend Since (as far as we know) all life is carbon-based, a stable carbon cycle is especially important
The habitable zone is the region around a star in which planets can develop life
Assuming the need for liquid surface water, it follows that most stars around the size of our
sun will be able to sustain habitable zones for billions of years Stars that are larger than the
sun are much hotter and burn out more quickly; life there may not have enough time to evolve
Stars that are smaller than the sun have different problems First of all, planets in their
habitable zones will be so close to the stars that they will be “tidally locked”- that is one side
of the planet will always face the star in perpetual daylight with the other side in perpetual night Another possible obstacle to life on smaller stars is that they tend to vary in their
luminosity, or brightness, due to flares and “star spots” The variation can be large enough to have harmful effects on the ecosystem Of course, not all stars of the right size will give rise to
Trang 15life; they also must have terrestrial planets with the right kind of orbits Most solar systems have more than one planet, which influences each other’s orbits with their own gravity
Therefore, in order to have a stable system with no planets flying out into space, the orbits must be a good distance from one another Interestingly, the amount of space needed is
roughly the width of a star’s habitable zone This means that for life to evolve, the largest possible number of life-supporting planets in any star’s habitable zone is two Finally, not all planets meeting the above conditions will necessarily develop life One major threat is large, frequent asteroid and comet impacts, which will wipe out life each time it tries to evolve The case of Earth teaches that having large gas gains, such as Saturn and Jupiter, in the outer part
of the solar system can help keep a planet safe for life Due to their strong gravitation, they tend to catch or deflect large objects before they can reach Earth
Question 35: Which is the topic of the passage?
A The search for intelligent life B Conditions necessary for life
C Characteristics of extraterrestrial life D Life in our solar system
Question 36: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as necessary for the
development of life except
Question 37: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to
Question 38: It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that
A the Earth is in the sun’s habitable zone
B the Earth is tidally locked to the sun
C the sun varies in its luminosity
D variations in luminosity help life to develop
Question 39: The word “sustain” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
Question 40: In order for life to develop, a planet’s orbit must not be
C on the same planet as another planet’s orbit D less wide than the star’s habitable zone
Question 41: In can be inferred from paragraph 4 that
A most stars have more than two planets in their habitable zone
B no star has more than two planets in its habitable zone
C it is not possible for a star to have three planets with life on them
D for life to develop, a star must have at least two planets in its habitable zone
Question 42: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in the passage?
A Because of their nearness, habitable planets orbiting smaller stars usually have either
constant daylight or constant night
B The habitable zones of smaller stars are so close to the star that planets within them do not
Trang 16Question 43: The school officials are considering comprehensive planning to alleviate the
problem of overcrowding in the dormitories
Question 44: Spanish is the only course that it is not offered in the summer term, but there are
several classes offered in the fall
Question 45: Sarah was not best speaker in the class, but her personality and ability to convey
her feelings helped her become the most requested
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to the following question
Question 46: There won’t be peace in the conflict if both sides do not really desire it
A It is only if both sides actually want the conflict to end peacefully that it will happen
B As both sides in the conflict apparently desire peace, it is likely that there will be peace
soon
C The main problem in the conflict seems to be that neither side really desires peace
D There has been a lot of fighting in the conflict because both sides seem to want it that way
Question 47: The accident happened as the result of the driver’s not paying attention to the
road
A If the driver would have paid attention to the road, the accident hadn’t happened
B Had the driver been paid attention to the road, the accident wouldn’t have happened
C If the driver had been paying attention to the road, the accident wouldn’t have happened
D Had the accident not happened, the drive would not have had to pay attention to the road
Question 48: “Shall I help you do the dishes, Carlot?” said Robert
A Robert suggested helping Carlot do the dishes
B Robert suggested to help Carlot do the dishes
C Robert offered Carlot to help do the dishes
D Robert offered to help Carlot do the dishes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following question
Question 49: I started training to be an accountant six months ago I’ve got more months to
go, then I have to take exams
A By the time I’ve taken my exams, I will have started training to be an accountant for a year.
B By the time I take my exams, I will have been in training to be an accountant for a year
C By the time I took my exams, I would have trained to be an accountant for a year
D By the time I’ve taken my exams, I will be training for a year
Question 50: Why did Danny decide to enter the marathon? Danny’s totally unfit
A Why did Danny decide to enter the marathon who’s totally unfit?
B Why did Danny, whose totally unfit, decide to enter the marathon?
C Why did Danny decide to enter the marathon, who’s totally unfit?
D Why did Danny, who’s totally unfit, decide to enter the marathon?
Trang 17PRACTICE TEST 12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A politician B genetics C artificial D controversial
Question 2: A delegate B fabulous C external D slippery
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A chamber B ancient C danger D ancestor
Question 4: A choice B chaos C charge D chase
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5: John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” - Anna: “ !”
Question 6: Mary: “It’s a nice day today Let’s play a game of tennis.”
Linda: “ ”
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The relationship between structure, process and outcome is very unclear
A disappear B external C apparent D uncertain
Question 8: The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now
A constant B changable C objective D ignorant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 9: The conference is governed by its newly elected board
Question 10: After a long lunch hour, business resumes as usual
A continues B resurfaces C delays D responds
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 11: Could you please tell me _?
A where does my uncle’s room B where is my uncle’s room
C where my uncle’s room is D where my uncle’s room
Question 12: Gordon wants to look his best at the wedding so he’s _
C to get made a suit D having made a suit
Question 13: This book provides students _ useful tips that help them to pass the
coming exam
Question 14: I won’t change my mind _what you say
Trang 18A whether B no matter C because D although
Question 15: My car isn’t _ It’s always letting me down
A believable B reliable C colorable D conceivable
Question 16: Each of the guests _ a bunch of flowers
A are given B is given C were given D give
Question 17: Let’s go to the beach this weeken, _?
Question 18: Peter _ a book when I saw him
A is reading B reading C read D was reading
Question 19: It is recommended that he _ this course
Question 20: We need _ information before we can decide
Question 21: I was doing my homework _ the light went out
Question 22: It gets _ to understand what the professor has explained
A the more difficult B difficult more and more
C more difficult than D more and more difficult
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather pattern (23) strongly affect the world When the water is warm, the amount of rainfall in Indonesia and surrounding regions decreases Australia could (24) experience a drought in many parts On the other hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for severe rainstorms In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area much drier
This happening is called El Nino and is used (25) weather forecasters to make long-range weather predictions They also know that El Nino will bring unusually rain tothe southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at the same time
According to research, weather forecasters (26) know about the coming weather with certainty Now everything has become completely different
El Nino itself used to be predictable It would occur every two to seven years But now this weather pattern is becoming more frequent We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or cyclones occur Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (27) on the global scale either
Question 24: A even B ever C nevertheless D however
Question 26: A used to B get used to C are used to D used to be Question 27: A change B transfer C transformation D shift
Trang 19Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
The election of Andrew Jackson to the presidency in 1928 marked the political
ascendancy of the “common man” in American politics His name became a household word
during the war of 1812, when, as a U.S Army major general, he led troops against the Creek Indians in the Mississippi Territory and later defeated the British at New Orleans
After his presidential inauguration, Jackson rode on horseback to the White House to attend a private party Crowds of well-wishers suddenly appeared at the reception and nearly destroyedthe White House as they tried to glimpse the new president The common man had made a dramatic entrance onto the national political scene
Jackson’s two terms moved American society toward truer democracy Many states abandoned property requirements for voting Elected officials began to act more truly as representatives of the people than as their leaders As president of the common man, Jackson waged a war against the Bank of the United States, vetoing the bill that re-chartered the
institution, declaring it a dangerous monopoly that profited the wealthy few
Although he had built his reputation as an Indian tighter during the War ol 1812,
Jackson was not an Indian hater He adopted what was at the time considered an enlightened solution to the Indian problem-removal Many tribes submitted peacelully to being moved to
the West Others were marched by force to the Indian Territory, under brutal conditions,
along what the Cherokees called the Trail of Tears
One of Andrew Jackson’s most enduring legacies was the Democratic Party, whichunder him became a highly organized political party In opposition to the Democrats were theWhigs, a party that attracted supporters of the Bank of the United States and opposed the
tyranny of the man called “King Andrew” A less specific but more basic legacy is the populist philosophy oi politics that still bears the name “Jacksonian Democracy.” Question 28: The phrase “became the household word” in paragraph I means that _
A a house style was called Jackson B Jackson acquired fame
C people criticized Jackson D Jackson was a popular boy’s name
Question 29: The author suggests that Jackson’s election and inauguration _
A destroyed the White House
B brought a new style to the presidency
C made a lot of common people angry
D put a military man in the White House for the first time
Question 30: According to the passage, why did Jackson oppose the Bank of the United
States?
A He thought it benefited only rich people
B It started a war
C It opposed electing him “King Andrew”.
D It opposed giving common people the right to vote
Question 31: According to the passage, Jackson’s policy toward American Indians was
_
A developed during the War of 1812 B forceful and cruel
C considered his greatest achievement D considered progressive at the time
Question 32: The word “brutal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to