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Đề và hướng dẫn chấm chi tiết môn Tiếng Anh kỳ thi HSG lớp 12 năm học 20182019 của tỉnh Thanh Hoá. Mọi người hãy tải về làm thử xem khả năng của mình giải được đến đâ; Giáo viên có thể tải về cho học sinh làm thử để đánh giá khả năng giải đề của các em. File nghe có đính kèm nhé mọi người

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

THANH HÓA

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH

NĂM HỌC 2018-2019 Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 11- THPT

Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 21/ 3/ 2019

Đề thi có 08 trang

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây,

mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu

Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.

Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

PART I Listen to a telephone conversation between a hotel receptionist and a caller making a reservation Complete the form by using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or

A NUMBER for each answer (5pts)

Silver Tulip Hotel

1 Number of nights: (1)

2.Type of room: (2) _bed

3 Name: (3) EDWARD _

4 Transport: (4)

5 Date of arrival: (5)

PART II Listen to Tyrone calling his local swimming pool Decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts)

6 There are four different age groups that play water polo T/F

8 The under 16s water polo team trains three times a week T/F

9 Water polo matches are played on Saturdays T/F

10 You need to bring a photo to register at the swimming pool T/F

PART III Listen to the speaker talking about the Maasai and the lions Answer the questions by choosing A, B, C or D (5 pts)

Số báo danh

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11 How did the Maasai people feel about lions in the past?

A Strongly disliked them B Ignore them

12 What is the aim of the Lion Guardians scheme?

A To move the lions to a safer area B To train local people to breed the lions.

C To allow experts to do the research D To train local people to protect the lions

13 Why did Olubi Lairumbe change his mind about killing lions?

A He found it dangerous B He felt sad about having killed a pregnant

lion

C He realized he was wrong D He has killed seven lions in his lifetime.

14 How do Maasai warriors get a lion name, traditionally?

A By killing a lion B By doing something brave

C By raising a lion D By hunting a lion

15 What do the Lion Guardians do to help people see lions as part of the community?

A Give people photos of the lions B Tell people stories about the lions.

C Give the lions Maasai names D Give lion names to boys.

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest

in the same line Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts)

16 A pleased B raised C practised D organised

Question II Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts)

20 A gratitude B average C influence D recipient

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Question I Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence Write the answers on your answer sheet (10 pts)

21 David is the captain of the school basket team, _his father before.

A similar to B just like C such as D as well as

22 Biochemists have solved many of the mysteries about photosynthesis, the process plants make food

A.by which B through which C from which D in which

23 I don’t think he’s ever been there, _?

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24. second thoughts, I’d rather not go out tonight.

25 Advertisers often claim their campaigns at young people as they have coniderable

spending _

26 When someone is down on their _, friends are not easy to find.

27 The online game “Pugb” quickly with young people after being released in

2017

A.took on B caught up C caught on D took up

28 Mai: “Stop talking! You are so noisy.”

Huy: “ He is the noisest in this class.”

C You can say that again D You bet!

29 Everything in the supermarket is marked with a price _.

30 We set off on sunny Tuesday in August.

Question II Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form Write the answers on your answer sheet (8 pts)

31 You wouldn’t catch me (work) on a Sunday.

32 They were fortunate (rescue) _ from the fire before the building collapsed

33 It is asked that the government (set) up a regional library system.

34 If there aren’t any tickets left when we reach the front of the queue, we (wait)

all the time for nothing

35 Look! The rain has spoiled our furniture You (close) _ the windows last night.

36 She spoke about her daughter, then she went on (talk) _ about her son.

37 We were told that the workers (repair) an old bridge at that time.

38 The fifth man (interview) was entirely unsuitable.

Question III Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form Write the answers on your answer sheet (7pts)

39 Alice is very _ She always manages to look good in photographs.

(PHOTO)

40 Like many of his generation, he was fascinated by the Internet

(TECHNOLOGY)

41 Tony’s stubborn belief in his own _ kept him from listening to others (FALL)

42 Children growing up in time of war are more likely to be _ than other (ADJUST)

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43 Noise from the factory has reached an level

(ACCEPT)

44 The new movie is _ good.

(EXCEPT)

45 People used to suffer from their life-time physical .

(NORMAL)

Question IV The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 46 to 50 ) Recognize the mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet (5 pts)

Lin

e

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

Sometimes mail arrives in the post office, and it is impossible to deliver the mail.

Perhaps there is an inadequate or illegible address and no return address The post office can not just throw this mail out, so this becomes “dead mail” This “dead mail” is sent to one of the US Postal Service’s dead mail offices Seventy-five million pieces of mail can end up in the dead mail office in one year The staff of the dead mail offices have a variety of ways to deal with all of these pieces of dead mail First of all, they open packages in the hope that something inside will show that the package came from or is going to Dead mail will also be listed on a computer so that people can call in and check to see if a missed item is there However, all of this mail can’t simply be stored forever; When a lot of dead mail has piled up, the dead mail offices hold public auction Every three months, the public is invited in and bins containing items found in dead mail packages are sold

to the lowest bidder

Example: Line 1: in  at

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below Write the answers on your answer sheet (10 points)

There has been a significant shift in entertainment trends over the last twenty years or so

Entertainment used to be public, now it is becoming more and more (51) Formerly people wanting to amuse themselves did so in (52) , these days, people increasingly

entertain themselves on their own

Long, long ago, there were storytellers They used to travel around the country and their

arrival was (53) _ with eager anticipation In the more recent past, people used to have

musical evenings, they used to play games together, on simply sit around the fire and chat

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Nowadays, (54) _of playing board games in a group, children play video games

alone or with one another person People of all ages spend their evenings alone watching television, videos and DVDs And large numbers of young (and not so young) enthusiasts

spend their free time surfing the net, (55) _, by its very nature, tends to be a (56) _activity.

Forms of entertainment have always been changing, of course, but it could be said that

these recent changes all, (57) _ of technological development, (58) _ a more

fundamental shift One could further argue that this shift is symbolized by the earphones that

(59) _ in evidence everywhere Can this deliberate attempt to shut out the rest of the world really be (60) _entertainment?

Question II Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space Write the answers on your answer sheet (10pts)

In recent years there has been a remarkable increase in research into happiness The

researchers have (61) a number of factors which contribute to a definition of

happiness First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be

happy; in other words, happiness (62) _ in families And happiness seems to

correlate quite strongly with the main dimensions of personality: extroverts are generally

happier, neurotics are so Second, people often (63) good social relations as a reason for their happiness In particular, friends are a great (64) of joy, partly

because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because of the way friends use positive nonverbal signals such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship Marriage

and similar (65) _ relationship can also form the basis of lasting happiness Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (66) overall satisfaction, and vice versa – perhaps this is

why some people are happy in boring job: it works in both ways Job satisfaction is caused not only by the essential nature of the work, but also by social interaction with co-workers Unemployment, on the contrary, can be serious cause of unhappiness Fourth, leisure is

important because it is more under individual (67) _ than most other causes of happiness Activities (68) _ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of various kinds, can give joy, this is partly because of the (69) _ themselves, but also because of the social support of other group members-it is very strong (70) the case of

religious groups

61 A fallen back on B gone in for C got down to D come up with

66 A consists of B applies to C contributes D counts on

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68 A like B such C so D thus

69 A facilities B activities C exercises D amenities

Question III Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below Write the answers on your answer sheet (10 pts)

TIDAL ENERGY

A Tidal Stream Generation system reduces some of the environmental effects of tidal barrages by using turbine generators beneath the surface of the water Major tidal flows and ocean currents, like the Gulf Stream, can be exploited to extract its tidal energy using underwater rotors and turbines

Tidal stream generation is very similar in principle to wind power generation Water currents flow across a turbines rotor blades which rotates the turbine, much like how wind currents turn the blades for wind power turbines In fact, tidal stream generation areas on the sea bed can look just like underwater wind farms

Unlike off-shore wind power which can suffer from storms or heavy sea damage, tidal stream turbines operate just below the sea surface or are fixed to the sea bed Tidal streams are formed by the horizontal fast flowing volumes of water caused by the ebb and flow of the

tide as the profile of the sea bed causes the water to speed up as it approaches the shoreline.

As water is much more denser than air and has a much slower flow rate, tidal stream turbines have much smaller diameters and higher tip speed rates compared to an equivalent wind turbine Tidal stream turbines generate tidal power in both the ebb and flow of the tide

On of the disadvantages of Tidal Stream Generation is that as the turbines are submerged under of the water they can create hazards to navigation and shipping

Other forms of tidal energy include tidal fences which use individual vertical-axis turbines

that are mounted within a fence structure, known as the caisson, which completely blocks a

channel and force water through them Another alternative way of harnessing tidal power is

by using an “oscillating tidal turbine” This is basically a fixed wing called a Hydroplane positioned on the sea bed The hydroplane uses the energy of the tidal stream flowing past it

to oscillate its giant wing, similar to a whales flipper, up and down with the movement of the

tidal currents This motion is then used to generate electricity The angle of the hydroplane to the flow of the tide can be varied to increase efficiency

Tidal energy is another form of low-head hydro power that is completely carbon neutral like wind and hydro energy Tidal power has many advantages compared to other forms of renewable energy with its main advantage being that it is predictable However, like many other forms of renewable energy, tidal energy also has disadvantages such as its inflexible

generation times dependent upon the tides and the fact that it operates in the hostile

conditions of the oceans and seas

71 Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?

A.Tidal energy system and its working principle.

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B.Currents and flow of ocean and seas.

C.Tidal turbine and its environmental effects.

D.Tidal energy in comparison with hydro energy.

72 According to paragraph 2, wind power turbines rotate thanks to .

A Tidal stream B water currents flow C wind currents D wind farms

73 What does the word “profile” in paragraph 3 refer to?

A An outline of an object B A biographical account

C A summary or analysis of data D A vertical section of soil and rock

74 What is mentioned in the passage as a disadvantage of Tidal Stream Generation?

A It can suffer from storms or heavy sea damage.

B There are some hazards in navigating and shipping turbines.

C It uses individual vertical-axis turbines.

D It is another form of low-head hydro power.

75 The word “that” in paragraph 5 refers to _.

C individual vertical-axis turbines D fence structure

76 What can be inferred from paragraph 5?

A Individual vertical-axis turbines are the best choice for Tidal Stream Generation.

B Fence structure is the only way to harness tidal power.

C Hydroplane uses less energy of the tidal stream.

D There are some alternative ways to exploit tidal power.

77 The word “oscillate” in paragraph 5 mostly means _.

A fluctuate B remain C move D stabilize

78 According to the passage, which of the following statements about Tidal Stream Generation

is TRUE?

A Tidal stream generation is very dissimilar in principle from the wind power generation.

B Tidal stream turbines generate tidal power on both the ebb and flow of the tide.

C The angle of the hydroplane to the flow of the tide can’t be varied to increase efficiency.

D Tidal energy has no disadvantages.

79 The word “hostile” in the last paragraph mostly means _.

A difficult B unfriendly C agreeable D favorable

80 According to the last paragraph, the passage will most likely be followed by discussion

of

A Hostile conditions of the oceans and seas.

B Adjustable generation times of the tides.

C Drawbacks of tidal energy.

D Many other forms of renewable energy.

SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)

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Question I Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it Write the answers on your answer sheet (5 pts)

81 You must not write your answer in ink.

 It is against _

82 The staff hated Frank’s new policies intensely and so went on strike.

 So intense

83 People say that he sold his house to pay the debt.

 He is

84 “I admit that I forgot to turn on the alarm system” said Mark.

 Mark confessed _

85 When she saw the dog coming towards her, she quickly crossed the road.

 On _

Question I Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it (5 pts)

86 Every possible effort was made by the orphanage to find the boy’s parents (STONE)

 The orphanage

87 Women outnumber men by two to one in Greece (TWICE)

 There _

88 No matter what Peter does, people don’t seem eager to work on project (GENERATE)

 Peter doesn’t seem _

89 The jumper you knitted for my daughter no longer fits her (GROWN)

 My daughter _

90 Only final year students are allowed to use the main college car park (RESTRICTED)

 The use _

Question III Essay writing (10 pts)

Write an essay of about 200 - 250 words to express your opinion on the following topic:

“Music is an integral part of our life.”

- THE

END -SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠOTHANH HÓA ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HD CHẤM – ĐỀ CHÍNH

THỨC

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2018-2019

(HDC gồm 03 trang)

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 11 - THPT

Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Trang 9

Ngày thi: 21/ 3/ 2019

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)

PART I Listen to a telephone conversation between a hotel receptionist and a caller

making a reservation Complete the form by using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or

A NUMBER for each answer (5pts)

1 1/ one 2 Double - king-sized 3 FRANCIS

4 Taxi 5 Fri(day) 16th April

PART II Listen to Tyrone calling his local swimming pool Decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts)

PART III Listen to the speaker talking about the Maasai and the lions Answer the

questions by choosing A, B, C or D (5 pts)

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest

in the same line Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts)

Question II Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts)

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Question I Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.(10 pts)

Question II Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form Write the answers on your answer sheet (8 pts)

31 working 32 to have been rescued

33 (should) set 34 will be waiting

35 should have closed 36 to talk

37 were repairing 38 to be interviewed

Question III Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form Write the answers on your answer sheet (7pts)

39 photogenic 40 technophiles 41 infallibility 42 maladjusted

43 unacceptable 44 exceptionally 45 abnormalities

Question IV The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 46 to 50 ) Recognize the

mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet (5 pts)

46 Line 3: out  away

47 Line 7: that  where

48 Line 9: missed  missing

49 Line 10: auction  auctions

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50 Line 12: lowest  highest

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below Write the answers on your answer sheet (10 pts)

51 private 52 groups 53 awaited 54 instead 55 which

56 solitary 57 products 58 mark 59 are 60 called

Question II Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space Write the answers on your answer sheet (10pts)

66 C 67 C 68 A 69 B 70 C

Question III Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below Write the answers on your answer sheet (10 pts)

71 A 72 C 73 D 74 B 75 C

76 D 77 A 78 B 79 B 80 C

SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)

Question I Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it (5 pts)

81 It is against the rules to write your answer in ink

82 So intense was the hatred for/of Frank’s new policies that the staff went on strike

83 He is said to have sold his house to pay the debt

84 Mark confessed to forgetting/ having forgotten to turn on the alarm system

85 On seeing the dog coming towards her, she quickly crossed the road

Question II Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given Do not change the form of the given word (5pts)

86 The orphanage left no stone unturned in their attempt to find the boy’s parents

87 There are twice as many women as men in Greece

88 Peter doesn’t seem to generate enthusiasm (in people) for working on the project

89 My daughter has grown out of the jumper you knitted for her

90 The use of the main college car park is restricted to final year students

Question III Essay writing (10 pts)

Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme

1 Format: 2 pts ( coherence, cohesion , style )

The essay should include 3 parts:

a Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are

expressed clearly

b Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs Each paragraph must have a topic sentence, reasonings and examples

c Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)

2 Content : 5pts

A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument

Note:

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