BỘ 7 ĐỀ THI TIẾNG ANH THPT QUỐC GIA CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.. to le

Question 2: A rhythm B psychology C physical D mythology

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A physical B summary C romantic D following Question 4: A compliment B counterpart C.kindergarten D biologist

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: St Nicholas' Church has been granted more than £130,000 by English Heritage to repair the

building

A Weather-beaten B Contemporary C Under the weather D Chic

Question 6: I can’t imagine how anyone clever as he is could make a terrible mistake.

A even-rather B so-as C quite-just D as-such

Question 7: What I can’t understand is why he is now pursuing our daughter and why he has not told

her that he was once acquainted us

A to B with C for D of

Question 8: The belief that a man in his early twenties ought to have a firm occupational choice reflects

that development is complete by the end of adolescence

A the prevailing view B the prevailed view C the view prevailed D this view is prevailing Question 9: I know that someone who has great natural shape but is won't beat someone

with a lesser shape who is in condition

A out of reach B out of the question C out of the ordinary D out of the condition Question 10: I couldn’t believe my eyes She in that pink kimono.

A looked so perfectly B looked so beautiful C was looking beautifully D look such nice Question 11: Even though Nestlé is a globally recognized name, Nestlé products only

account for a little more than 2% of packaged food and beverages sold around the world

A notorious B household C double-barreled D strange-sounding Question 12: I’m sure you can recognize her; she a purple raincoat.

A will have worn B will be wearing

C is going to wear D will have been wearing

Question 13: Unlike most modernist poets, based on ordinary speech.

A Robert Frost’s poems were B the works of Robert Frost were

C Robert Frost wrote poems that were D the poetry written by Robert Frost

Question 14: According to reports, choosing a winner from the final three was a hard task.

A participants B contestants C applicants D partakers

Question 15: Peter: “I can’t decide what color I want for my bedroom What do you think?” Jane: “You

should choose color you want You’re the one who will have to live with it.”

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A whichever that B whatever C however D that what

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Question 16: playing professional basketball, she also enjoys tennis.

A Besides B Moreover C Apart D Together

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17: “Maybe you can take a vacation next month.”

A Nothing special B You’re welcome.

C It’s very expensive D I don’t think so I’m teaching all summer.

Question 18: “ ” “Yes Do you have any shirts?”

A Could you do me a favour? B Oh, dear What a nice shirt!

C May I help you? D White, please.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: We’re not taki n g on any new staff at the moment so that we can cut down the cost.

A employing B hiring C offering D laying off

Question 20: The story was that of a little girl who was bom in a w e l l -t o - d o family and was a top

performer in her studies

A rolling in money B made of money C well-heeled D destitute

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning

to each of the following questions.

Question 21: The fox was unsuccessful in reaching the grapes.

A The fox tried in vain to reach the grapes B There’s no point reaching the grapes.

C It was not worth reaching the grapes D It was no good to reach the grapes.

Question 22: He seemed very reluctant to take my advice.

A He seemed quite willing to take my advice.

B It seemed he was not ready to give me advice

C It seemed he was not willing to take my advice.

D He seemed very anxious to take my advice.

Question 23: I don’t agree with prohibiting smoking in bars.

A I am not in favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.

B I am not in favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.

C I am not in favor with prohibiting smoking in bars.

D I am not on favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.

REALITY TELEVISION

Reality television is genre of television programming which, (it is claimed), presents unscripteddramatic or humorous situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professionalactors It could be described as a form of artificial or “heightened” documentary Although the genre hasexisted in some form or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularitydates from around 2000

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Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows

which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a

modem example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism- focused productions such as BigBrother

Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequentlyportray a modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location orabnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events onscreen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques

Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations.For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously,traveling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales Reality television also has the potential to turn itsparticipants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol,though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity

Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for severalstyles of program included in the genre In competition- based programs such as Big Brother andSurvivor, and other special-living-environment shows like The Real World, the producers design theformat of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely

fabricated world in which the competition plays out Producers specifically select the participants, and

use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviours andconflicts Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, andavoids the word “reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories It really is not reality TV

It really is unscripted drama.”

Question 24 The word “demeaning” is closest in meaning to

A despising B diminishing C valueless D humiliating

Question 25 According to the passage, Reality TV appeals to some because

A it uses exotic locations

B it shows eligible men dating women

C it can um ordinary people into celebrities

D it shows average people in exceptional circumstances

Question 26 According to the passage, the program “Pop Idol”

A turns all participants into celebrities

B is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities that Big Brother

C is less likely to turn participants into celebrities than Big Brother

D is a dating show

Question 27 Producers choose the participants

A to make an imaginary world

B on the ground of talent

C to create conflict among other things

D only for special-living-environment shows

Question 28 The term “reality television” is inaccurate

A for talent and performance programs

B for special-living-environment program

C for all programs

D for Big Brother and Survivor

Question 29 The word “fabricated” is closest in meaning to

A imaginary B real C imaginative D isolated

Question 30 Which of the following in NOT true according to the passage?

A Shows like Survivor have good narratives.

B Mark Burnett thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate.

C Japan has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere

D Reality television has been popular since well before 2000.

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Alligators have always been the most dangerous predators of the Florida Everglades, (31) .their long-held position is now being challenged by a growing population of Burmese pythons

The Burmese python, a giant snake measuring up to 20 feet long and weighing up to 200 pounds, isvery popular among exotic pet owners However, as the (32) snakes grow, they become moredifficult to cafe and handle To avoid dealing with the snakes, the owners irresponsibly release them intothe wild (33) the Everglades is quite similar to the python’s native environment of SoutheastAsia, they survive and prosper without difficulty

The issue with the Burmese pythons is their choice of meals They eat alligators and endangered birds,which creates a strain on an already (34) ecosystem Recently a 13-foot long Burmese pythonwas found with a 5-foot alligator bursting from its stomach They python died trying to eat the alligatorbut a larger one would have easily won the struggle With over 30,000 Burmese pythons now living in theEverglades, a solution to stop this invasive species is necessary If the pythons are (35) unchecked, there is a strong possibility they will wipe out a variety of species necessary for thefunctioning of the Everglades ecosystem

(Source: * Master TOEFL Junior*, Hahn (2015)

Question 31: A but B so C because D since

Question 32: A dead B died C death D deadly

Question 33: A Although B On account of C Since D When

Question 34: A solid B fragile C balance D substantial

Question 35: A left B leaving C leave D to leave

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 36: I’m not surprised that Tom is ill He’s been bu r n i n g the c a nd le at b oth en d s for a long

time It was bound to affect his health sooner or later

A overworking B extra work C over loading D playing with fire Question 37: The word crisis is too often used to exaggerate the pr e d i c a me n t of a club

experiencing hard times

A situation B dilemma C shame D embarrassment

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 38: Julie had a training course in alternative medicine She was able to help the man out of

danger

A Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out of

danger

B Having trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.

C But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of danger.

D Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.

Question 39: The guest on our show who has won the Opera He is the youngest professional golfer that

has won this award so far

A The guest on our show is the youngest professional golfer to win the Opera so far.

B.The professional golfer who has won the Opera so far is the youngest guest on our show.

C The youngest professional golfer won the Opera so far is the guest on our show.

D The youngest guest on our show is the professional golfer winning the Opera so far.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction

in each of the following questions

Question 40: If the goal of education is to e nh a n c e both individual achievement and social progress, thenthe “shopping mall colleges” should b ee n replaced with colleges that a r e true learningcommunities

A to enhance B both C been D that are

Question 41: If the man h a d tr a nsp o rt e d to the hospital soon e r than he was, he c ould have survi v e d theelectrocution

A had transported B sooner C could D survived

Question 42: S o me r e s ea r c h e rs believe that a n unf a ir attitude toward the poor will c ontribut e d tothe problem of poverty

A Some researchers B an unfair C poor D contributed

*Read the following passage and mark the letter A, H, C, or 1) on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Theresa May, the second female Britain’s prime minister following Margaret Thatcher, revealed in

2013 that she had been given a diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes, a condition that requires daily insulininjections Asked later how she felt about the diagnosis, she said her approach to it was the same astoward everything in her life: “Just get on and deal with it.” That kind of steeliness brought her to centerstage in the aftermath of Britain’s vote to leave the European Union and the feuding that erupted in theConservative Party over who would succeed David Cameron

Ms” May, 59 years old, is the country’s longest-serving home secretary in half a century, with areputation for seriousness, hard work and above all, determination She is one of a growing number ofwomen in traditionally male-dominated British politics rising to the upper position of leadership

Bom in 1956, Ms May grew up mainly in Oxford shire, an only child who was first drawn to theConservative Party at age 12 As a conscientious student, she never rebelled against her religiousupbringing and remains a regular churchgoer Tellingly, her sports hero was Geoffrey Boycott, a solid,stubborn cricketer who specialized in playing the long game

Like many other Britain’s prime minister including Tony Blair, Sir Robert Peel and Margaret Thatcher,she won a place at Oxford But while almost every other political leader got there by way of Eton Collegeand joined Oxford’s hedonistic Bullingdon Club, she attended a state secondary school and had a more

sedate university career After unsuccessful attempts to be elected to the House of Commons in 1992 and

1994, she finally became an MP in 1997 general election

May is known for a love of fashion and in particular distinctive shoes She even wore print shoes to her final Cabinet meeting as Home Secretary in early 2016 However, she has been quitecritical of the media focusing on her fashion instead of her achievement as a politician May alsodescribes cooking and walking as primary hobbies, and if someone is raising questions about whywalking can be classified as a hobby, she elaborates in a column for Balance magazine, in which shewrote of her battle with diabetes

leopard-Question 43 According to the passage, who is the prime minister coming before Theresa May?

A Tony Blair B Margaret Thatcher C Sir Robert Peel D David Cameron Question 44 The most prominent characteristic of Theresa May is

A stubbornness B seriousness C determination D hard work

Question 45 Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A British political life is conventionally controlled mainly by men.

B The number of women in politics is increasing.

C Conservative Party didn’t have to discuss about who would be the next prime minister.

D Theresa May’s toughness was one of the reasons for the Party to choose her for the prime

minister position

Question 46 Which of the following facts is TRUE about Theresa May?

A She graduated from Eon College.

B As a child, she was quite rebellious.

C She didn’t work part time as a university student.

D She used not to be a home secretary.

Question 47 She first became a member of parliament in

A 1992 B 1994 C 1997 D 2013

Question 48 Her reason to consider walking as one of her main hobbies is

A she is quite critical B it helps her fight diabete

C someone asks about it D it is written on Balance magazine

Question 49 The word “approach” is closest in meaning to

A means B advance C technique D trick

Question 50 The word “hedonistic” is closest in meaning to

A ordinary B luxurious C economical D simple

ĐỀ SỐ 02

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs front the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A nervous B bi r thday C thi r d D wo r ry

Question 2: A piracy B privilege C primate D privacy

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A musician B mutual C museum D mosaic

Question 4: A contestant B satellite C similar D interview

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: “What are you doing here now? You be here for another three hours.”

“I know We got an early start, and it took less time than we expected I hope you don’t mind." A A.couldn’t B had better not

C might not D aren’t supposed to

Question 6: How much he tries to convince you, please don’t

A give up B.give in C lay out D bring to

Question 7: So much effort and talent will go to_ if we are forced to drop the film

A waste B bargage C loss D failure

Question 8: this book by the time it is due back to the library?

A Will you read B Will you have read

C Will you be reading D Have you read

Question 9: The government must take action against environmental pollution.

A important B unstable C decisive D soft

Question 10: She made a promise to be committed to her husband no matter what

A It can be better or worse B Better than worse

C Either better or worse D.For better or for worse

Question 11: One member of the project group the boss and was fired immediately.

A came up against B came up with

C talked back to D put up with

Question 12: Not until we the school for children with disabilities how they overcome

difficulties

A had visited/ did we know B visited/ had we known

C visited/ did we know D have visited/ did we know

Question 13: We need to take measure to solve the drug problem in our city.

A prospering B cautious C Valuable D Effective

Question 14: Congress has decreed that the gasoline tax

A abolish B abolished C be abolished D been abolished

Question 15: I ask him for the money he owes me, he says he will bring it in a few days, but

I don’t think he has got it all

A Whatever B However C Whenever D Wherever

Question 16: “Some body forgot this hat I wonder .”

A whose is this hat B whose hat is C whose hat this is D is this whose hat

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or O on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17: Lan: Can we meet this Sunday to discuss our plan for the wildlife protection project?

Nam:

A Yes, we did that B Sunday is the weekend.

C Sunday suits me fine D Sunday is a great day.

Question 18: “Huy hasn’t finished his assignment, has he?” - “ ”

A Yes, he has He hasn’t finished it yet.

B Yes, he hasn’t He’s too lazy.

C No, he has in spite of being a good student.

D No, he hasn’t because of his illness.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 19: Now our parents are still alive We should be grateful to them and thank them for what they

have done for us

A Now our parents are still alive to be grateful to and to be thanked for what they have done for us.

B If our parents are not alive, we will not need to be grateful to them and thank them for what they

have done for us

C We should be grateful to our parents when they are still alive and thank them for what they have

done for us

D Our parents will live longer if we are grateful to them and thank them for what they have done for

us

Question 20: You need to study your vocabulary words You can do well on the quiz.

A You need to study your vocabulary words, so that you can do well on the quiz

B You need to study your vocabulary words, because you can do well on the quiz.

C You can do well on the quiz before you need to study your vocabulary words.

D Doing well on the quiz, you have a good chance to study your vocabulary words.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning

to each of the following questions.

Question 21: Our grandmother might have phoned while we were out.

A Our grandmother ought to have phoned while we were out.

B Possibly our grandmother phoned while we were out.

C Unfortunately we were out when our grandmother phoned.

D We were sure our grandmother had phoned while we were out.

Question 22: No one expect the graduate assistant understood the results of the experiments.

A All the graduate assistant understood the experiments

B The experiments were not understood by any of them

C Only the graduate assistant understood the experiments.

D All but one of the graduate assistant understood the experiments.

Question 23: It’s just not possible for the cat to have opened the fridge.

A The cat must not possible have opened the fridge.

B The cat was supposed to possibly have opened the fridge.

C The cat cannot possibly have opened the fridge.

D The cat need not possibly have opened the fridge.

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.

MEGACITY: A NEW KIND OF CITY

A term 'megalopolis' (or megacity) was first used by French geographer Jean Gottman to describe thenorth-eastern United States in 1961 The term is used more widely now and is defined as an urban area ofmore than 10 million inhabitants dominated by a low-density housing In 1995 there were 14 megacities

By 2020 there could be 30

Megacities are the result of the process of urbanization After cities grew into crowded urban centres,people who could afford to move into suburbs at the edge of the city When the suburbs in turn becamecrowded, people moved into villages and dormitory towns outside the city, but within commutingdistance In this way, for the first time since industrialisation, the countryside began to gain population,whereas cities lost their inhabitants In the 1980s St Louis and Detroit in the America lost between 35 and

47 per cent of their populations and London lost 15 per cent in the 20 years to 1971

However, this movement away from cities does not mean that the city is dying In fact it is spreading.

From the old city develops a metropolitan area with many low-level urban developments When thesemetropolitan areas merge together, they form megacities which contain over 10 million people The

largest of these is in America, called Boswash - a region over 300 miles long from Boston in the north to

Washington, DC in the south with more than 44 million people There are emerging megalopolises inBritain centred around London and the south-east, in Germany in the industrial region of the Ruhr andJapan in the Tokyo-Osaka-Kyoto region

(adaptedfrom Archive IELTS (2013), Louis Harrison et al., Cengage Learning)

Question 24: A megacity is characterised by

A number of centres B high-rise apartment buildings

C those who move from villages D low-level urban developments

Question 25: Movement away from cities creates_

A urbanization B dormitory towns C metropolitan areas D industrialisation

Question 26: Areas merging together form .

A city spread B megacity

C suburb movement D village movement

Question 27: Which is the best title for paragraph 3?

A Megacities around the world B What is a megacity?

C The formation of megacities D Cities lose their people

Question 28: Which of the following is NOT true?

A London is an example of emerging megalopolis.

B People moving out of the cities live in the area within travelling distance.

C The loss of city population can reach nearly 50%.

D Megacities must have overall 10 million inhabitant.

Question 29 The word "spreading" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

A lessening B shrinking C decreasing D expanding

Question 30 The highlighted word "these" in the passage refers to

A megacities B people C regions D developments

*Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Bacteria are the smallest known living things with a cellular structure These colorless, one-celledmicro-organisms exist (31) organic matter is found: in soil, in water and in the air Since most ofthem have no chlorophyll, they cannot use light energy to synthesize their food, (32) greenplants do.They must get their food in other ways In this, bacteria resemble animals However, since theyare enclosed in a cell wall, they can only (33)_ dissolved food like plants do Although mostbacteria do not contain chlorophyll, some of them can make their own organic food from simple inorganic(34) They do not, however, use light energy for this purpose Others get ready-made food fromdead plants and animals Still others are parasites Parasites are (35)_ to enter other livingorganisms and take food from them In doing so, they often cause diseases or the death of their hosts

(http://www englishdaily626.com)

Question 31 A however B whatever C wherever D whenever

Question 32 A since B so C if D as

Question 33 A absorb B consume C attract D eat

Question 34 A materials B foodstuffs C supplies D resources

Question 35 A competent B effective C able D skilled

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 36: This is the third su cce ss i ve time the firm receives this award

A continuous B successful C enventual D high

Question 37: More complex animals gradually e volved from these very simple creatures

A resolved B involved C revolted D developed

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or I) on your answer sheet to indicate the wordfs) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 38: Feel free to bring along your sig n i f i c a n t o t h e r to the party.

A dear B foe C mate D spouse

Question 39: I’d go mad if I had to do a d e a d -e n d job like working on a supermarket checkout.

A boring B monotonous C fascinating D demanding

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction

in each of the following questions.

Question 40: President Andrew Jackson had a n of f ici a l cabinet, but him pr e f e r r e d the advice of hisinformal advisors, the Kitchen Cabinet

A an official B him C preferred D his

Question 41: Before the newspaper became wid e spr ea d , a town c r i e r has walked throughout a village ortown sin g i n g out the news

A widespread B crier C has D singing out

Question 42: The Dean demanded thoro u g h research, complete invest i g a te , and w e l l - w ritten re p o r t

A thorough B investigate C and D well-written report

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Political and economic reforms launched in 1986 have transformed the country from one of the poorest

in the world, with per capita income around US $100, to lower middle income status within a quarter of acentury with per capita income of around US $2,100 by the end of 2015

Vietnam’s per capita GDP growth since 1990 has been among the fastest in the world, averaging 5.5percent a year since 1990, and 6.4 percent per year in the 2000s Vietnam’s economy continued tostrengthen in 2015, with estimated GDP growth rate of 6.7 percent for the whole year

The Vietnamese population is also better educated and has a higher life expectancy than most countrieswith a similar per capita income The maternal mortality ratio has dropped below the upper-middle-income country average, while under-five mortality rate has fallen by half, to a rate slightly above thataverage Access to basic infrastructure has also improved substantially Electricity is now available toalmost all households, up from less than half in 1993 Access to clean water and modem sanitation hasrisen from less than 50 percent of all households to more than 75 percent

Vietnam’s Socio-Economic Development Strategy (SEDS) 2011-2020 gives attention to structuralreforms, environmental sustainability, social equity, and emerging issues of macroeconomic stability Itdefines three "breakthrough areas": promoting human resources/skills development (particularly skills formodem industry and innovation), improving market institutions, and infrastructure development

In addition, the five-year Socio-Economic Development Plan 2011-2015 focused on three criticalrestructuring areas - the banking sector, state-owned enterprises and public investment - that are needed toachieve these objectives The recent draft of the SEDP 2016-2020 acknowledges the slow progress of thereform priorities of the SEDP 2011-2015

With agriculture still accounting for almost half the labour force, and with significantly lower labourproductivity than in the industry and services sectors, future gains from structural transformation could besubstantial The transformation from state to private ownership of the economy is even less advanced.The state also wields too much influence in allocating land and capital, giving rise to heavy economywide inefficiencies So, adjusting the role of the state to support a competitive private sector-led marketeconomy remains a major opportunity This will be important for enhancing productivity growth which

has been stagnating for a long time.

(Adapted from ht t p://ida world bank, org/results/country/vietnam)

Question 43 It took Vietnam about years to move from the poorest to the middle income status?

A 20 B 15 C.10 D 25

Question 44 What was Vietnam’s per capita GDP growth rate in 2015?

A 6.7% B 6.4% C 5.5% D 7.5%

Question 45 Which of the followings is NOT mentioned as an example of development in Vietnam?

A The small number of people dead after birth

B The larger number of people educated abroad

C The improved access to cleanliness

D The wide availability of electricity

Question 46 According to the passage, nearly

in 2015

of the households did NOT get access to clean water

A three-fourths B two-thirds C one-fourth D a half

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Question 47 According to the passage, what is NOT an example of “breakthrough areas”?

A Toad markets B Transport C Power supplies D Job training

Question 48 What is NOT a focus of the Socio-Economic Development Plan 2011-2015?

A Spending money on education and health

B Reforming the government’s companies

C Changing the sum charged for use of money

D Investing in profitable private businesses

Question 49 What does the word “stagnating” in the last paragraph mean?

A Stopping developing B Making progress

C Missing opportunities D Strengthening competitiveness

Question 50 What is likely to be over-controlled by the government?

A Agriculture B Private companies

C Services sectors D Heavy industries

ĐỀ SỐ 03

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:A talks B learns C stops D cuts

Question 2:A suspicious B summer C swim D sugar

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose differs from the other three in stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A household B secure C pressure D active

Question 4: A acquaintance B Enthusiasm C loyalty D incapable

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Du r ing a curfew it is not possible w a lk i ng on the streets after a sp ec ifi e d hour

A B C D Question 6: It is re c om m e nd e d that p e ople took regular e x e r c ise

A B C D Question 7: Ev e r y bo d y in m y house h a ve to do their sh a re of household chores

A B C D

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: He has been very interested in doing research on since he was at high school.

A biology B biological C biologist D biologically

Question 9: She is a rising star as a standup comedian, always able to bring down the during

each performance

A house B rain C roof D kennel

Question 10: We enjoy time together in the evening when the family members gather in the

living room after a day of working hard

A spending B caring C taking D doing

Question 11: She found it difficult to get with new friends.

A aquaint B acquaintance C acquainted D acquaints

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Question 12: By this time next summer, you your studies.

A completes B will complete C are completing D will have completed Question 13: Like everyone else, Sue has her of course but on the whole, she's quite satisfied

with life

A ups and downs B ins and outs C safe and sound D odds and ends

Question 14: With greatly increased workloads, everyone is pressure now.

A under B above C upon D out of

Question 15: The parents realized that the young teacher was great efforts to help

their poor kids

A doing B making C having D getting

Question 16: As I have just had a tooth , I am not allowed to eat or drink anything for

three hours

A taken out B crossed out C broken off D tried on

Question 17: It’s a big country with a population.

A rare B sparse C scarce D few

Question 18: Best friends are the people in your life that make you laugh , smile brighter and

live better

A loud B louder C loudly D more loudly

Question 19: Most doctors and nurses have to work on a once or twice a week at the hospital.

A solution B night shift C household chores D special dishes

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - “What do you usually do on your day off?” - “ ”

A I usually drive to work

B I will sleep all day

C I usually do not much

D Nothing much I always sleep until noon.

Question 21: - Hoa: “What a lovely hat you have!”

- Mai: “Thanks .”

A I’m glad you like it B I don’t care C That’s OK D Certainly

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Hue is the ideal place to enjoy life; it’s a beautiful and h os p itable city with its famous

cultural heritage

A friendly B natural C affectionate D noticeable

Question 23: Billy, come and give m e a h a n d with cooking.

A attempt B prepared C be busy D help

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: She got up late and r u s h e d to the bus stop.

A went quickly B went leisurely C went slowly D dropped by

Question 25: Although my brother is sometimes m isch i e vo us , he is well-behaved on the

whole A close-knit B obedient C shocked D.

disobedient

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning

to each of the following questions.

Question 26: They are not allowed to go out in the evening by their parents.

A Their parents do not want them to go out in the evening.

B Going out in the evening is permitted by their parents.

C Their parents never let them go out in the evening.

D Although their parents do not allow, they still go out in the evening.

Question 27: In spite of his poverty, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause.

A He could not devote his life to the revolutionary cause because of his poverty.

B If he had not been so poor, he could have devoted his life to the revolutionary cause.

C Poor as he was, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause.

D He led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause, but he was so poor.

Question 28: I thought I should not have stayed at home yesterday.

A I regretted staying at home yesterday.

B I regretted for staying at home yesterday.

C I regret for staying at home yesterday.

D I regret to stay at home yesterday.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the follow ing questions.

Question 29: People should not throw rubbish in the park People should not cut down the trees in the park.

A People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.

B People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.

C People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park

D People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park.

Question 30: It's her duty to shop for groceries at the supermarket every day.

A She has only one duty to shop for groceries at the supermarket every day.

B She takes responsibility for shopping for groceries at the supermarket every day.

C To shop for groceries at the supermarket every day, she has a duty.

D Her duty is shopping at the supermarket every day.

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Years ago, in their private family role, women quite often dominate the male members of thehousehold Women were quite (31) to their families However, the public role of women haschanged (32) since the beginning of World War II During the war, men were away fromhome to the battle As a (33) , women were in complete control of the home They foundthemselves doing double and sometimes triple duty They began to take over the work of their absenthusbands and to work outside They accounted for 73% of the industrial labor force Women were forced

by economic realities to work in the factories The

women who worked there were (34) low wages, lived in crowded and small dormitories (35) they found themselves a place as active members of society

Question 31: A fascinated B worried C dedicated D interested

Question 32: A unfortunately B Approximately C nearly D dramatically

Question 33: A change B result C success D opportunity

Question 34: A paid B made C created D delivered

Question 35: A Because B Therefore C However D So

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster.According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which

ambitious parents make Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and willfail Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to children.

However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious

in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well - especially if the parents are very supportive

of their child

Michael Collins is very lucky He is cr a z y a b o u t music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him

to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him T h e y even drive him 50 kilometers

twice a week for violin lessons Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his fatherplays the trumpet in a large orchestra However, he never makes Michael enter music

competitions if he is u n w i l l i ng .

Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky Both his parents are successful musicians,and they set too high a standard for Winston They want their son to be as successful as they are and sothey enter him for every piano competition held They are very unhappy when he does not win Winston

is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy

Question 36: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to

A push their child into trying too much B make their child become a musician

C neglect their child’s education D help their child to become a genius

Question 37: Parents’ ambition for their children is not wrong if they

A force their children into achieving success

B themselves have been very successful

C arrange private lessons for their children

D understand and help their children sensibly

Question 38: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?

A Educational psychologists B Unrealistic parents.

C Their children D Successful musicians.

Question 39: The phrase “cr a z y a b o u t ” in the passage mostly means

A “surprised at” B “completely unaware of”

C “confused about” D “extremely interested in”

Question 40: Winston’s parents push their son so much and he

A cannot learn much music from them B is afraid to disappoint them

C has won a lot of piano competitions D has become a good musician

Question 41: The word “u n w i l l i n g ” in the passage mostly means

A “getting ready to do something” B “not objecting to doing anything”

C “not wanting to do something” D “eager to do something”

Question 42: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that

A parents should let the child develop in the way he wants

B successful parents always have intelligent children

C successful parents often have unsuccessful children

D parents should spend more money on the child's education

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

In the United States, friendship can be close, constant, intense, generous and real, yet fade away in ashort time if circumstances change Neither side feels hurt by this Both may exchange Christmasgreetings for a year or two, perhaps a few letters for a while - then no more If the same two people meetagain by chance, even years later, they pick up the friendship where they left off and are delighted.

In the United States, you can feel free to visit people's homes, share their holidays, or enjoy their liveswithout fear that they are taking on a lasting obligation Do not hesitate to accept hospitality because you

can’t give it in turn No one will expect you to do so for they know you are far from home.

Americans will enjoy welcoming you and be pleased if you accept their hospitality easily

Once you arrived there, the welcome will be fun, warm, and real Most visitors find themselves readilyinvited into many homes there In some countries it is considered inhospitable to entertain at home,offering what is felt as only home cooked food, not doing something for your guests." It is felt that

restaurant entertaining shows more re s p e c t and welcome Or for other different reasons, such as

crowded space, language difficulties, or family customs, outsiders are not invited into homes

In the United States, both methods are used, but it is often considered friendlier to invite a person toone's home than to go to a public place, except in purely business relationship So, if your host or hostessbrings you home, do not feel that you are being shown inferior treatment

Don't feel neglected if you do not find flowers awaiting you in your hotel room, either Flowers are veryexpensive there; hotel delivery is uncertain; arrival times are delayed, changed or cancelled - so flowersare not customarily sent as a welcoming touch Please do not feel unwanted! Outward signs vary indifferent lands; the inward welcome is what matters, and this will be real

Question 43: In the United States, friendship will if circumstances change.

A change suddenly B be destroyed

C disappear gradually D be broken

Question 44: Americans their foreign friends to make a return for their hospitality.

A hope B hesitate C never allow D don’t expect

Question 45: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to

A hospitality B obligation C holiday D money

Question 46: According to the passage, in some countries people prefer

A inviting outsiders into homes B crowded space

C inviting guests to restaurants D family customs

Question 47: In the United States, inviting guests to a family dinner is than inviting

them to a public place, except some situations

A less inferior B less hospitable C more natural D more popular

Question 48: The word “respect” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A enthusiasm B admiration C inspiration D suggestion

Question 49: According to the passage, which of the following NOT true?

A Flowers are not customarily sent to guests.

B Flowers are available at all time.

C Flowers are signs of outward welcome.

D Flowers are expensive.

Question 50: Which of the following is the best title for this passage?

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A American Hospitality B American Friendship

C American Invitation D American Welcome

ĐỀ SỐ 04

* Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A photographed B Helped C naked D practiced

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose differs from the other three in stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A believe B marriage C maintain D response

Question 4: A appreciate B embarrassing C situation D experience

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: I find that necessary to do something a bout traffic problem in our city

A find that B to do C about D in

Question 6: Th e re a re few areas of h u man experience that h a ve not be e n w r i t ing about

A there are B of human C have not been D writing

Question 7: In the past, pol i te men h a d stood up when women e n t e r e d the room

A the B polite C had stood up D entered

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Peter is working in an office He’s a white- worker.

A collar B sleeve C shirt D button

Question 9: Just keep on the baby while I cook the supper, will you?

A a look B a glance C an eye D a care

Question 10: He clearly had no of doing any work, although it was only a week till the exam.

A desire B ambition C willingness D intention

Question 11: Not a word since the exam started.

A she wrote B she had written C has she written D she has written

Question 12: She showed her by asking lots of trivial questions.

A experience B experienced C inexperienced D inexperience

Question 13: An only child often creates an friend to play with.

A imagery B imaginable C imaginary D imaginative

Question 14: He has a very outgoing and makes friends very easily.

A person B personality C personal D personage

Question 15: Your to life decides whether you are happy or not.

A thinking B opinion C attitude D dream

Question 16: People are advised to smoking because of its harm to their health.

A cut down B cut off C cut in D cut down on

Question 17: They decided to divorce and Mary is to get the right to raise the child.

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A equal B determined C obliged D active

Question 18: Some researchers have just a survey of young people’s points of view on

contractual marriage

A sent B directed C managed D conducted

Question 19: It is not easy to our beauty when we get older and older.

A maintain B develop C gain D collect

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - Harry: "I'm going on holiday tomorrow."

- An: “ ”

A Sorry to hear that B Congratulations!

C Watch out D Have a nice time

Question 21: - Hoa: "Write to me when you get home."

- Phong: “ ”

A I must B I should C I will D I can

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Professor Berg was very interested in the div e rs i ty of cultures all over the world.

A variety B changes C conservation D number

Question 23: I don't like that man There is a s n e a ky look on his face.

A humorous B dishonest C guilty D furious

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: She decided to remain ce l i bate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.

A married B divorced C separated D single

Question 25: Maria will take c h ar e e of the advertising for the play.

spend time B spend

C account for D be irresponsible for

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning

to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “If I were you, I'd tell him the truth, ” she said to me.

A She said to me that if I were you, I’d tell him the truth.

B She suggested to tell him the truth if she were me.

C She will tell him the truth if she is me.

D She advised me to tell him the truth.

Question 27: David seems really ill at case in front of all those people.

A David feels uncomfortable in front of all those people.

B David is easy to be ill because of all those people.

C David is ill because he stands in front of all those people.

D David fells comfortable in front of all those people.

Question 28: Those students should be punished for what they have done.

A Those students should have done what they were punished for.

B What those students have done will give them some punishment.

C Those students can't get away with what they have done.

D The things those students have done are kinds of punishment.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: I have to support my family I want to find a job.

A I want to find a job in order support my family.

B I have to support my family from seeking a job.

C I want to find a job so that I can support my family.

D I want to find a job because my family supports me.

Question 30: The workers finished their work They left for home.

A Before the workers finished their work, they left for home.

B Having finished their work, the workers left for home.

C By the time the workers finished their work, they had left for home.

D The workers left home since they finished their work.

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The relationship between students and teachers is less formal in the USA than in many other countries.American students do not stand up (1) their teachers enter the room Students are encouraged

to ask questions during class, to stop in the teacher’s office for extra help, and to phone if they are absent.Most teachers (2) students to enter class late or leave early if necessary (3) thelack of formality, students are still expected to be polite to their teachers and fellow classmates

When students want to ask questions, they usually (4) a hand and wait to be called on.When a test is being given, talking to a classmate is not only rude but also risky Most American teachersconsider that students who are talking to each other (5) a test are cheating

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The increase in international business and in foreign investment has created a need for executives withknowledge of foreign languages and skills in cross-culture communication Americans, however, have notbeen well trained in either area and, consequently, have not enjoyed the same level of success innegotiation in an international arena as have their foreign counterpart

Negotiating is the process of communicating back and forth for the purpose of reaching an agreement Itinvolves persuasion and compromise, but in order to participate in either one, the negotiators mustunderstand the ways in which people are persuaded and how compromise is reached within the culture ofthe negotiation

In many international business negotiations abroad, Americans are perceived as wealthy andimpersonal It often appears to the foreign negotiator that the American represents a large multimillion-dollar corporation that can afford to pay the price without bargaining further The American negotiator’srole becomes that of an impersonal purveyor of information and cash, an image that succeeds only in

und er m i n i n g the negotiation.

In studies of American negotiators abroad, several traits have been indentified that may serve to confirmthis stereotypical perception, while subverting the negotiator's position Two traits in particular that causecross-culture misunderstanding are directness and impatience on the part of American negotiator.Furthermore, American negotiators often insist on realizing short-term goals Foreign negotiators, on theother hand, may value the relationship established between negotiators and may be willing to invest time

in it for long-term benefits In order to solidify the relationship, they may opt for indirect interactionswithout regard for the time involved in getting to know the other negotiator

Clearly, perceptions and differences in values affect the outcomes of negotiations and the success ofnegotiators For Americans to play a more effective role in international business negotiations, they mustput forth more effort to improve cross-cultural understanding

Question 36: What is the author’s main point?

A Negotiation is the process of reaching an agreement.

B Foreign languages are important for international business.

C Foreign perceptions of American negotiators are based on stereotypes.

D American negotiators need to learn more about other cultures.

Question 37: According to the author, what is the purpose of negotiation?

A To undermine the other negotiator’s position.

B To communicate back and forth.

C To reach an agreement.

D To understand the culture of the negotiators.

Question 38: The word un d e r m i n i n g in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

A making known B making clear C making brief D making weak

Question 39: Which of the following is mentioned as a criterion necessary for negotiation?

A compromise B participation C communication D investment

Question 40: It can be referred from paragraph 1 that

A training is not available for Americans who must interact in international negotiations.

B foreign businesspersons negotiate less effectively than Americans because of their training.

C because their training is not as good, Americans are less successful as negotiators than

their international counterparts

D foreign businesspersons do not like to negotiate with Americans, who are not well trained.

Question 41: According to the passage, how can American businesspersons improve their

negotiation skills?

A By living in a foreign culture B By getting to know the negotiators

C By compromising more often D By explaining the goals more clearly

Question 42: The American negotiator is described as all of the following EXCEPT

A perceived by foreign negotiators as wealthy B willing to invest time in relationships

C known for direct interaction D interested in short-term goals

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

In most discussions of cultural diversity, attention has focused on visible, explicit aspects of culture,

such as language, dress, food, religion, music, and social r ituals Although they are important, these visible expressions of culture, which are taught deliberately and learned consciously, are only the tip

of the ic e b er g of culture Much of culture is taught and learned implicitly, or outside awareness.

Thus, neither cultural insiders nor cultural outsiders are aware that certain “invisible” aspects of theirculture exist

Invisible elements of culture are important to us For example, how long we can be late before beingimpolite, what topics we should avoid in a conversation, how we show interest or attention throughlistening behavior, what we consider beautiful or ugly- these are all aspects of culture that we learn anduse without being aware of it When we meet other people whose invisible cultural assumptions differ

from those we have learned implicitly, we usually do not recognize their behavior as cultural in origin.

Differences in invisible culture can cause problems in cross-cultural relations Conflicts may arise when

we are unable to recognize others’ behavioral differences as cultural rather than personal We tend tomisinterpret other people’s behavior, blame them, or judge their intentions or competence withoutrealizing that we are experiencing cultural rather than individual differences

Formal organizations and institutions, such as schools, hospitals, workplaces, governments, and thelegal system are collection sites for invisible cultural differences If the differences were more visible, wemight have less misunderstanding For example, if we met a man in a courthouse who was wearing exoticclothes, speaking a language other than ours, and carrying food that looked strange, we would not assumethat we understood his thoughts and feelings or that he understood ours Yet when such a man is dressedsimilarly to us, speaks our language, and does not differ from us in other obvious ways, we may fail torecognize the invisible cultural differences between us As a result, mutual misunderstanding may arise

Question 43: What is the main purpose of the passage?

A To describe cultural diversity.

B To point out that much of culture is learned consciously.

C To explain why cross-cultural conflict occurs.

D To explain the importance of invisible aspects of culture.

Question 44: The word “r itual s ” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A cultures B formalities C assumptions D aspects

Question 45: The phrase “the tip of the i ce b er g ” in paragraph 1 means that

A visible aspects of culture are learned in formal institutions

B most aspects of culture cannot be seen

C other cultures seem cold to us

D we usually focus on the highest forms of culture

Question 46: Which of the following was NOT mentioned as an example of invisible culture?

A What topics to avoid in conversation.

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B How late is considered impolite.

C What food to eat in a courthouse

D How people express interest in what others are saying

Question 47: The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to

A people who speak a different language

B people from a different culture

C topics that should be avoided in conversation

D invisible cultural assumptions

Question 48: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that conflict results when

A people think cultural differences are personal

B people compete with those from other cultures

C one culture is more invisible than another culture.

D some people recognize more cultural differences than others.

Question 49: The author implies that institutions such as schools and workplaces

A are aware of cultural differences

B teach their employees about cultural differences

C share a common culture.

D reinforce invisible cultural differences

Question 50: Which of the following would most likely result in misunderstanding?

A Unusual food being cooked by foreign visitors.

B Strange behaviour from someone speaking a foreign language.

C Strange behaviour from someone speaking our language.

D Learning about our own culture in school.

ĐỀ SỐ 05

* Mark the letter A, BC or D on answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined differs from the other three in pronunciation in each following question.

Question 1: A wave B sta y C hate D party

Question 2: A attracte d B blesse d C hope d D handed

* Mark the letter A, B C or D on answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following question.

Question 3: A signal B suppose C approach D respond

Question 4: A situation B appropriate C informality D entertainment

* Mark the letter A, B C or D on answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) each following question.

Question 5: Later a wine reception will be followed by a concert before guests tuck into a b a nqu e t

A an enormous breakfast B a formal conference

C an informal party D a formal party

Question 6: In many cultures, people signify their agreement by n o dd i n g their head.

A turning B shaking C pointing D waving

* Mark the letter A, B C or D on answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) each following question.

Question 7: You shouldn't point at people when you are talking to them It is very i m p ol i t e

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A smart B rude C informal D honest

Question 8: I didn't think his comments were very a pp r o p r iate at the time.

A correct B right C exact D suitable

* Mark the letter A, B C or D on answer sheet to indicate the answer to each of the following question.

Question 9: He bent toward the candle and gently.

A blow B blew C blowing D blown

Question 10: They held a concert to mark the of Mozart's death.

A occasion B situation C anniversary D remembrance

Question 11: The manager is good at difficult customers.

A relying on B dealing with C showing off D wiping off

Question l2: The party starts at 9 o'clock so I’ll at 8.30.

A look for you B pick you up C bring you along D bring up

Question 13: 15 My parents are going to h it t h e r oof if they find out we had a party here.

A become angry B become sad C become worried D become nervous Question 14: You can use non-verbal forms of communication, such as gestures or body languages to get

the waiter's When you are in a restaurant

A attract B attractive C attractively D attraction

Question 15: Alice didn't expect to Tom's party.

A asking B being asked C to ask D to be asked

Question 16: Mr Peter is the big in the company as he has just been promoted

to the position of Managing Director

A bread B meat C cheese D apple

Question 17: When he realized the police had spotted him, the man the exit as quickly as

possible

A made off B made for C made out D made up

Question 18: He not having finished the project.

A reproached his secretary for B allowed his secretary to

C resented his secretary of D was furious with his secretary at

Question 19: These activities are considered as a chance for new comers to with

their colleagues in company

A suppose B socialize C attend D discuss

Question 20: On my birthday my father gave me some money, so that I could buy a hat for myself, which

made me excited

A extremely B perfectly C lonely D correctly

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21: Alice meets Mary at their class after Mary has had her hair cut.

Alice: "What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!"

Mary: “ ”

A Thank you very much I am afraid B You are telling a lie

C Thank you for your compliment D I don't like your sayings

Question 22: Peter and Jack are playing tennis

Peter: "How well you are playing!" “Jack: ”

A Say it again I like to hear your words B I think so I am proud of myself

C Thank you too much D Many thanks That is a nice compliment

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23: His teacher e n c ourag e d him taking part in the inte r n a t i on a l piano c ompeti t io n

A B C D Question 24: So far this term, the students in writing class h a ve l e a rn e d how to w r i t e thesis statements,

more complex in Japan (29) the business card represents not only one's identity but also hisstatus in life Yours should be printed in your own language and in Japanese The Japanese are not atouch-oriented society; so avoid open displays of affection, touching or any prolonged form of bodycontact Queues are generally respected; especially in crowded train and subway stations (30) the huge volume of people causes touching and pushing.

Question 28: A politely B impoliteness C impolitely D impolite

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 37.

A gesture is an action that sends a message from one person to another without using words We usegestures to communicate with others There are some gestures that have completely different meaningdepending on when and where they are used

When an American wants to show that something is OK or good, he raises his hand and makes a circlewith his thumb and foreigners The circle sign has only one meaning for him He might be surprised tolearn that in other countries it can mean something different In Japan, for instance, it is the gesture formoney In France, it means 'zero' or 'worthless' Such differences can lead to all kinds ofmisunderstanding when foreigners meet But why is it that the same gesture has so many differentmeanings?

When some people want to show that something is exact or precise, th e y make a sign to show that

they are holding something between the tips of their thumb and forefinger Many people from allover the world do this when they want to make a specific point as they are speaking People later startedusing this signal to mean 'exactly right' or 'perfect' This was how the famous OK was bom

In Japan, money means coins and coins are around Therefore, making a round hand sign came torepresent money It is simple as that The French sign for 'nothing' or 'worthless' also has a simple origin.This time the circle doesn't represent a coin, but nought Nought equals zero, zero equals nothing, nothingequals worthless

Question 31: What is the difference between gesture and speech.

A Speech use words while gestures don't.

B Gestures use words whole speech doesn't.

C Gestures are used to communicate with others but speech isn't.

D Gestures convey meanings that are different from speech.

Question 32: When does an American raise his hand and make a circle sign?

A When he means that he has no money.

B When he wants to show that something is OK.

C When he wants to send a message that he is not well.

D When he plays with his thumb and foreigner.

Question 33: The word "th e y " in paragraph 3 refers to

A gestures B signs C people D something

Question 34: Which of the following statements is tr u e ?

A A gesture with a circle means zero in America

B In France and Japan, a circle sign made with a thumb and a forefinger means the same.

C Body language hardly meads to misunderstanding.

D A gesture may mean different things in different cultures.

Question 35: Where does the famous sign OK come from?

A It comes from the specific point.

B It comes from the way people hold things in their hands.

C It comes from the sign made by the tip of the thumb and forefinger.

D It comes from the idea that a coin is round.

Question 36: What does the circle sign represent in France?

A It means money B It means coins

C It means something exact D It means useless

Question 37: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A the different meaning of showing OK sign in America Japan and France.

B using gestures may lead to misunderstanding.

C people from different cultures may understand a gesture in different ways.

D people shouldn't use gestures because they can make mistake.

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 45.

Halloween falls on October 31 each year in North America and other part of the world What do youknow about Halloween? Do you celebrate it in your country? Here is a little history about it?

Like other holidays, Halloween has evolved and changed throughout history Over 2,000 years agopeople called the Celts lived in what is now Ireland, the UK, and parts of Northern France November 1was their New Year's Day They believed that the night before the New Year (October 31) was a timewhen the living and the dead came together

More than a thousand years ago the Christian church named November 1 All Saints Day (also called AllHallows) This was a special holy day to honor the saints and other people who died for their religion.The night before All Hallows was called Hallows Eve Later the name was changed to Halloween

Like the Celts, the Europeans of that time also believed that the spirits of the dead would visit the earth

on Halloween T h e y worried that evil spirits would cause problems or hurt them So on that night

people wore costumes that looked like ghosts or other evil creatures They thought if they dressed likethat, the spirits would think they were also dead and not harm them

The tradition of Halloween was carried to America by the i m m igra t i n g Europeans Some of

the traditions changed a little, though For example, on Halloween in Europe some people wouldcarry lanterns made from turnips In America, pumpkins were more common So people began puttingcandles inside them and using them as lanterns That is why you see Jack 'o lanterns today

These days Halloween is not usually considered a religious holiday It primarily a fun for children.Children dress up in costumes like people did a thousand years ago But instead of worrying about evil

spirits, they go from house to house They knock on door and say "t r i c k or t re a t " The owner of each

house give candy or something special to each trick and treat

Question 38: The Celts thought on October 31.

A the dead would revive

B the spirits of dead people returned to the earth

C they would have a party to welcome the dead

D the spirits of dead people would never come back to the earth

Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?

A The Celts created All Hallows

B The name Halloween originated from the word Hallows Eve.

C Halloween falls on October 31 each year.

D Halloween is a special holy day to honor the saints and people who died for their religion.

Question 40: The word "t r ick or t re a t " in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to

A cheat and joke

B worrying about evil spirits

C a religious holiday in some countries.

D a Halloween custom for children in many countries.

Question 41: The word "th e y " in paragraph 4 refers to

A the Celts B evil spirits C the Europeans D ghosts

Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following can result from the carrying Halloween to

America?

A People don't wear costumes like ghosts or other evil creature any more.

B The Americans carry lanterns made from pumpkins instead of turnips

C People go from house to house for drinking tea.

D Halloween is not on October 31 any longer.

Question 43: The word "im m i g r atin g " in paragraph 5 is opposite in meaning to

A emigrating B migrating C settling D transmigrating

Question 44: The passage is mainly about?

A The Celts and Halloween.

B Halloween today and in the past.

C History of Halloween.

D The difference of Halloween in Europe and in America.

Question 45: Why the old Europeans wore costumes like ghosts and other evil creatures?

A Because they wanted the spirits not to harm them.

B Because they wanted to get candy.

C They wore costumes to go to parties.

D They wore costumes to go house from house.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning

to each of the following questions.

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Question 46: "How beautiful is the dress you have just bought!" Peter said to Mary.

A Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress.

B Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress.

C Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress.

D Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress

Question 47: "Why don't you ask the teacher for help?" Peter asked me.

A Peter advised me to ask the teacher for help.

B Peter recommended me not to ask the teacher for help.

C Peter told me the reason why I did not ask the teacher for help.

D Peter suggested that he should ask the teacher for help.

Question 48: As soon as he arrived at the airport, he called home.

A No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home

B He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected.

C Calling home, he said that he had arrived the airport.

D Immediately after he called home, he arrived the airport.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: She tried very hard to pass the driving test She could hardly pass it.

A Although she didn’t try hard to pass pass the driving test, she could pass it.

B Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.

C Hard as she tried, she could hardly hard pass the driving test

D She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily

Question 50: We didn’t want to spend a lot of money We stayed in a cheap hotel

A Instead of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel

B In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel

C We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.

D We didn’t want to spend a lot of money We stayed in the cheap hotel

ĐỀ SỐ 05

* Pick out the word whose underlined part has different pronunciation from the others

Question 1: A w ho B w heel C w hale D w ine

Question 2: A yellow B u niform C u nfortunate D u niversity

* Choose the word that contains the stressed syllable different form the ones in the other words

Question 3: A different B important C impressive D attractive

Question 4: A sincerely B cinema C discussion D compulsory

* Choose the best answer by circling the letter A, B, C, or D.

Question 5: There are many organizations in Ho Chi Minh City.

A volunteer B voluntarily C volunteers D voluntary

Question 6: Peter apologized for noise in the class.

A making B make C not make D to make

Question 7: by his work, he threw himself on his bed.

A Being exhausted B Having been exhausted C Exhausted D Exhausting

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Question 8: Education in Vietnam has improved since the government started a programme of

educational

A experience B reform C system D resources

Question 9: You will have to if you want to pass the final exam.

A put up your socks B work miracles

C take the trouble D keep your hand in

Question 10: They have considered ali the 100 applications, seem suitable for the position.

A none of them B none of these

C none of which D none of whom

Question 11: Elizabeth explained during the meeting that it was a of what should have

priority

A belief B fact C possibility D question

Question 12: The effects of literacy often extend personal benefits.

A after B beneath C over D beyond

Question 13: - I have gone to the doctor's to have a check up.

- You You just had your check-up last week!

A didn't need to go B needn’t have gone C needn’t go D don’t need to go Question 14: The song by our listeners as their favourite of the week is “Goodbye

Baby” by the Tunesmiths

A is chosen B having chosen C chosen D was chosen

Question 15: I can’t walk in these high-heeled boots I keep

A falling off B falling back C falling over D falling out

Question 16: The British and the American share the same language, but in other aspects they are as

different as

A cats and dogs B chalk and cheese C salt and pepper D here and there

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges

Question 17: " " "No, that would be fine."

A Are you closing the window? B Could you close the window?

C Would you mind if I close the window? D Would you close the window?

Question 18: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby

Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?”

Mary: “ ”

A Not a chance B That’s very kind of you.

C I can’t agree more D What a pity!

* Mark the letter A, B,C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 19: A lot n ee ds be done to the house b ef ore anyone can st a rt living in

A B C D Question 20: It is of great i m port a n c e that he p rep a r e s very carefully before taki n g p a rt in the National

A B C D

examination for GCSE

Question 21: H a ving l i v e d here for seven years, my friend is used to sp e a k English with a ll h e r classmate

A B C D

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)

in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Some high school students take p a r t in helping disadvantaged or handicapped children.

A hosting B participating C achieving D succeeding

Question 23: P un c tuality is imperative in your new job.

A Being efficient B Being courteous C Being on time D Being cheerful

* Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: An o p ti m i stic person always sees things on the bright sides.

A intelligent B pessimistic C confortable D difficult

Question 25: This new magazine is known for its c o m p re h e n sive coverage of news

A casual B indifferent C inadequate D superficial

* Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks

Just as more English is being taught in primary schools worldwide, so there are a growing number oflanguage schools in English-speaking countries that are (26) courses for younger learners InBritain most young learners' courses are (27) to 11-year-olds and upwards, with a few thatcater for children as young as seven But what is a sensible age to start sending children abroad to study?(28) , even adult learners find the experience of travelling to a strange country andencountering people who speak an incomprehensible language challenging?A great deal depends on how

a child has been (29) up For example, if they have been exposed to new things and havealready started to learn independence, then they are likely to prosper Further on, children who havepreviously travelled abroad with their parents are usually more prepared for a study (30) in anEnglish-speaking country on their own than those who have not

Question 26: A granting B setting C offering D studying

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate

the correct answer to each of the following questions:

University Entrance Examination is very important in Vietnamese students High school graduates have

to take it and get high results to be admitted to universities The pressure on the candidates remains veryhigh despite the measures that have been taken to reduce the heat around these exams, since securing aplace in a state university is considered a major step towards a successful career for young people,

especially those from rural areas or disadvantaged families In the year 2004, it was estimated that

nearly

1 million Vietnamese students took the University Entrance Examination, but on average only 1 out of 5candidates succeeded Normally, candidates take 3 exam subjects, and each lasts; 180 minutes for thefixed group of subjects they choose There are 4 fixed groups of subjects: Group A: Mathematics,Physics, and Chemistry; Group B: Mathematics, Biology, and Chemistry; Group C: Literature, History,and Geography; Group D: Literature, Foreign Language, and Mathematics

In addition to universities, there are community colleges, art and technology institutes; professionalsecondary schools, and vocational schools which offer degrees or certificates from a-few-month to 2-yearcourses

According to Vietnam's Ministry of Education and Training, there are currently 23 non-publicuniversities, accounting for 11% of the total number of universities These non-public universities arecurrently training 119,464 students, or 11.7% of the total number of students The government is planning

to increase the number of non-public universities to 30% by 2007

Question 31: University Entrance Examination in Vietnamese is very

A interesting B stressful C free D easy

Question 32: The word th ose refers to

A exam subjects B young people C universities D examinations

Question 33: In 2004, the proportion of the students who got success in University Entrance Examination

was about percent

A 5 B.10 C 20 D 50

Question 34: Which sentence refers to the University Entrance Examination in Vietnam?

A Students find it easy to get success in the University Entrance Examination.

B Math is compulsory in the University Entrance Examination.

C Students are not allowed to choose their exam subjects.

D There are four fixed groups of exam subjects for students to choose.

Question 35: According to the passage, ?

A the Vietnamese government will close all non-public universities by next year.

B the Vietnamese government does not appreciate non-public universities

C the Vietnamese government encourages the establishing of non-public universities.

D Vietnamese students have no alternative to continue their higher study besides universities.

Question 36: How many students took the University Entrance Examination in 2004 in Viet Nam?

A one million B over one million C one billion D nearly one million Question 37: How many exam subjects do students have to take in University Entrance Examination?

A one B three C four D five

Question 38: According to the passage,

A there are currently 23 non-public universities

B The government is planning to decrease the number of non-public universities.

C vocational schools offer degrees or certificates from 2-month to 2-year courses.

D Normally, candidates take 4 exam subjects, and each lasts; 180 minutes for the fixed group of

subjects they choose

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions:

ARE HUMAN BEINGS GETTING SMARTER?

Do you think you're smarter than your parents and grandparents? According to James Flynn, a professor

at a New Zealand university, you are! Over the course of the last century, people who have taken IQ testshave gotten increasingly better scores-on average, three points better for every decade that has passed.This improvement is known as "the Flynn effect," and scientists want to know what is behind it

IQ tests and other similar tests are designed to measure general intelligence rather than knowledge.Flynn knew that intelligence is partly inherited from our parents and partly the result of our environmentand experiences, but the improvement in test scores was happening too quickly to be explained byheredity So what was happening in the 20th century that was helping people achieve higher scores onintelligence tests?

Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect Some suggest that the improved testscores simply reflect an increased exposure to tests in general Because we take so many tests, we learntest-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test Others have pointed to better nutrition since

it results in babies being bom larger, healthier, and with more brain development than in the past Anotherpossible explanation is a change in educational styles, with teachers encouraging children to learn bydiscovering things for themselves rather than just memorizing information This could prepare people to

do the kind of problem solving that intelligence tests require

Flynn limited the possible explanations when he looked carefully at the test data and discovered that theimprovement in scores was only on certain parts of the IQ test Test takers didn't do better on thearithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test; they did better on sections that required a special kind ofreasoning and problem solving For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for patterns and connections between them and decide which shape should be added tothe set

According to Flynn, this visual intelligence improves as the amount of technology in our livesincreases Every time you play a computer game or figure out how to program a new cell phone, you areexercising exactly the kind of thinking and problem solving that helps you do well on one kind ofintelligence test, So are you really smarter than your parents? In one very specific way, you may be

Question 39: The Flynn effect is

A used to measure intelligent

B an increase in IQ test scores over time

C unknown in some parts of the world

D not connected to our experiences

Question 40: The Flynn effect must be the result of

A heredity

B our environment and experiences

C taking fewer tests

D memorizing information

Question 41: IQ tests evaluate

A our knowledge B our environment C our intelligence D our memories

Question 42: Which sentence from the article gives a main idea?

A Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect.

B Because we take so many tests in our lives, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform

better on any test

C Test-takers didn’t do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test.

D For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for pattern

and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set

Question 43: According to the article, newer education techniques include

A exposure to many tests B children finding things out themselves

C memorizing information D improved test scores

Question 44: Why does the author mention computer games?

A to give an example of technology that improve our visual intelligence.

B to explain why young people have poor vocabularies.

C to encourage the reader to exercise.

D to show that young people are not getting more intelligent.

Question 45: Which statement would Professor Flynn agree with?

A People today are more intelligent than in the past in every way.

B People today have fewer problems to solve.

C People today are taking easier tests.

D People today have more visual intelligence.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning

to each of the following questions.

Question 46: “You have just got a promotion, haven't you? Congratulations!” Peter said to his friend.

A Peter dream of getting promotion.

B Peter told his friend if his friend getting a promotion.

C Peter asked his friend on getting a promotion.

D Peter congratulated his friend on getting a promotion.

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Question 47: He couldn’t retake the exam because he missed too many lessons.

A He would retake the exam if he didn’t miss too many lessons.

B He could have retaken the exam if he hadn’t missed too many lessons.

C If he missed too many lessons, he wouldn’t retake the exam.

D If he had missed too many lessons, he wouldn’t have retaken the exam.

Question 48: People say tortoises live longer than elephants.

A Tortoises are said to be lived longer than elephants

B It’s said that tortoises are lived longer than elephants

C elephants are said to live longer than Tortoises

D Tortoises are said to live longer than elephants

* Mark the letter A, B, Cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in thefollowing questions.

Question 49: On the one hand, I’d love to study Japanese On the other hand, I really haven’t got the

time

A Nevertheless I would love to study Japanese, I really haven’t got the time.

B I really haven’t got the time; as a result, I would love to study Japanese.

C Because I haven’t got the time, I would love to study Japanese.

D I haven’t got the time; therefore I would not love to study Japanese.

Question 50: I ate the soup After that I remembered that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of

it

A It was not until I ate the soup did I remember that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of it.

B As soon as I remembered that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of soup I ate it.

C Only after eating the soup did I remember that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of it.

D Hardly had I forgotten to give my little sister some of it when I ate the soup.

ĐỀ SỐ 06

* Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A identity B obligatory C interview D insurance

Question 2: A wishe d B change d C tippe d D produced

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose, differs from the other three in stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A university B application C technology D entertainment

Question 4: A language B design C challenge D courage

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: E c onom i c s h a ve b e e n d e velo p e d r a p i d l y since the last few years

A B C D Question 6: Higher education is very i m port a n c e to national ec onom i e s , and it is also a source source of

A B

trained and e d u ca ted personnel for the w hole c ou n t r y

C D

A form B application C requirement D letter

Question 9: Taking part in the Advanced Engineering Project gave me a chance to use my to

help society

A creativity B creature C create D creative

Question 10: You can meet Mr Pike, who is behalf the university to solve the

problems of foreign students

A on/ of B in/ for C with/ at D for/ at

Question 11: He was the only that was offered the job.

A apply B application C applying D applicant

Question 12: Most are at senior level, requiring appropriate qualifications.

A degrees B grades C colleges D vacancies

Question 13: He had been expected to cope well with examinations and good results.

A achieve B last C consider D object

Question 14: She was the first in her family a college education.

A get B getting C gotten D to get

Question 15: A is an official document that you receive when you have completed a course

of study or training

A vocation B certificate C grade D subject

Question 16: I would like to invite you to participate in the ceremony.

A graduation B graduate C graduated D graduating

Question 17: The A-level (short for Advanced Level) is a General Certificate of Education set of exams

in the UK

A indicated B met C spent D taken

Question 18: It is very important for a film or a company to keep the changes in the market.

A pace of B track about C touch with D up with

Question 19: Students also have the opportunity to choose from a wide range of courses in

the university

A compulsory B limited C optional D required

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - John: “I’ve passed my final exam.” - Tom: “ ”

A Good luck B Congratulations!

C That’s a good idea D It’s nice of you to say so.

Question 21: - Peter: “Thanks a lot for your wonderful gift.” - Mary: “ ”

A You are welcome B Thank you

C Cheers D Have a good day

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: We are very a n xio u s about the result of the exam.

A careful B excited C careless D worried

Question 23: The c h oice of a particular career is influenced by a number of factors.

A usefulness B success C desire D selection

* Mark the tetter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE

in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: We offer a speedy and s e c u r e service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.

A uninterested B open C unsure D slow

Question 25: A surprising percentage of the population in remote areas is i l l i t e r at e

A able to speak fluently B unable to speak fluently

C unable to read and write D able to read and write

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning

to each of the following questions.

Question 26: She said, “I’ll call the police if you don’t leave immediately!”

A She frightened to call the police if he didn’t leave immediately.

B She said to call the police if he didn’t leave immediately.

C She scared to call the police if he didn’t leave immediately.

D She threatened to call the police if he didn’t leave immediately.

Question 27: My sister said to me, “You are going to do the washing up, don’t forget.”

A My sister told me to do the washing up.

B My sister reminded me not to forget to do the washing up.

C My sister reminded me to do the washing up.

D My sister ordered me to do the washing up.

Question 28: The hag was heavy, so we could not take it with us

A If the bag were not heavy, we would take it with us.

B Unless the bag had not been heavy, we would have taken it with us.

C If had the bag not been heavy, we would have taken it with us.

D Had the bag not been heavy, we would have taken it with us.

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Sue lives in a house The house is opposite my house.

A Sue lives in a house where is opposite my house.

B Sue lives in a house which is opposite my house.

C Sue lives in a house who is opposite my house.

D Sue lives in a house and which is opposite my house.

Question 30: She turned the radio on at 7.30 She was still listening to it when her mother came home at

9.00.

A She has been listening to the radio at 7.30.

B She had been listening to the radio since 7.30.

C She has been listening to the radio after 7.30.

D She had been listening to the radio by 7.30.

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Education is more important today than ever before It helps people (31) the skills they needfor such everyday (32) as reading a newspaper or managing their money It also gives themthe specialized training they may need to prepare for a job or career For example, a person must (33) certain educational requirements and obtain a (34) or certificate before he canpractice law or medicine Many fields, like computer operation or police work, require satisfactorycompletion of special training courses

Education also helps people adjust to change This habit has become necessary because social changestoday take place with increasing speed and affect the lives of more and more people Education can help aperson understand these changes and provide him (35) the skills for adjusting to them