Tumour suppressor genes Genes which normally control the cell cycle Loss of function results in an increased risk of cancer Both alleles must be mutated before cancer occurs recess
Trang 1By
Ali N Al-Mansour
Trang 2organization [Insert Date]
Trang 3Cell biology and molecule
Cell organelles
The table below summarizes the main functions of the major cell organelles:
Endoplasmic reticulum Rough endoplasmic reticulum
translation and folding of new proteins
manufacture of lysosomal enzymes
site of N-linked glycosylation
examples of cells with extensive RER include pancreatic cells, goblet cells, plasma cells
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
steroid, lipid synthesis
examples of cells with extensive SER include those of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, testes, ovaries
Golgi apparatus Modifies, sorts, and packages these molecules that are destined for cell secretion
Site of O-linked glycosylation Mitochondrion Aerobic respiration Contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA
Nucleus DNA maintenance and RNA transcription
Lysosome Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides
Nucleolus Ribosome production
Ribosome Translation of RNA into proteins - intimately associated with the rough endoplasmic
reticulum and are responsible for protein translation Peroxisome Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids
Results in the formation of hydrogen peroxide Proteasome Along with the lysosome pathway involved in degradation of protein molecules that
have been tagged with ubiquitin Lysosomes (lysis- breakage, soma- body) carry
hydrolases that degrade:
Nucleotides
Proteins
Lipids, and
Phospholipids
They also remove carbohydrate, sulfate, or
phosphate groups from molecules
The Golgi apparatus is part of the cellular
endomembrane system, which packages proteins
inside the cell prior to secretion
Trang 4Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have a ribosome,
significantly larger in eukaryotes
Histones allow DNA to twirl round it to form stable
nucleoprotein (nucleosomes) complexes
Chromosomes
The human karyotype: consists of 22 pairs of
autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes totaling
23 pairs altogether
Normal male and female karyotypes are 46, XY and
46, XX
Telomere are DNA sequence at distal extremities of
chromosomal arms, Become progressively shorter
with each cell division when it is reduced to a critical
length; the cell is not capable of dividing
The enzyme telomerase lengthen it. Thus preventing the limitation towards cell division.
It will affect the number of potential cell divisionsCentromeres provide a point of attachment for the
mitotic spindle Divide the chromosome into short (p) arm and long (q) arm
X-inactivation (also called lyonization) is a process
by which one of the two copies of the X chromosome present in female mammals is inactivated The inactive X chromosome is silenced
by its being packaged in such a way that it has a transcriptionally inactive structure called heterochromatin (inactivated genes)
A Barr body is the inactive X chromosome in a
female somatic cell, rendered inactive in a process called lyonization, in those species in which sex is determined by the presence of the Y (including humans) or W chromosome rather than the diploid
of the X or Z
• Haploid= cell with 23 chromosome as gametes
• Diploid= cell with 46 chromosome
• Triploid= cell with 3 copies of each Chr
• Aneupoid= contain a number of Chr not a multiple of 23
• Trisomy results in 47 chromosomes
Transcription of eukaryotic genes requires coding sequences (introns) in the mRNA to be spliced out before translation at the ribosome NUCLEIC ACID STRUCTURE
non-All nucleic acids are polynucleotides A nucleotide consists of three components A base, A pentose sugar, 1-3 phosphate groups There are two kinds of nucleic acids : • (DNA) • (RNA)
Trang 5DNA
It is a double helix molecule, Each strand
consists of a chain of nucleotides
Each nucleotide consists of a deoxyribose
sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous
base
Four nitrogenous bases, which occur in
DNA: adenine (A), thymidine (T), guanine
(G), cytosine (C)
(A) & (G) are purines, whilst (T) and (C) are
pyrimidines
There is specific base pairing:
o A with T, two hydrogen bonds
o G with C, three hydrogen bonds
RNA
Single stranded nucleic acid molecule involved with
the synthesis of proteins
RNA: nucleotides, which consist of
phosphate, ribose and nitrogen base
RNA polymerase is the enzyme that is
responsible for synthesing RNA molecules
mRNA has codons, which are bound by the
anticodons on tRNA during translation of
protein synthesis
Exons are coding sequences in the mRNA
and introns are areas of unknown function
Core structure is pentose sugar ribose
linking the purine bases – (A) and (G) - with
the pyrimidines - uracil and (C)
Types of RNA involved in gene transcription and
translation:
messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
During translation of mRNA, the bases are ‘read’ in a
3 base pair or triplet code, each 3-base pair unit
being referred to as a codon
Transfer RNA
Made within the nucleus
Functions within the cytoplasm
It attaches the correct amino acid to the protein chain being synthesized according
to the codon sequence on messenger RNA,
which it encounters - translation
Ribosomal RNA
Manufactured in the nucleolus
Main constituent of ribosomes within the
cytoplasm
Messenger RNA
A polynucleotide subtype of RNA, which is produced by the transcription of DNA
within the nucleus
It passes out of the nucleus to the
ribosomes within the cytoplasm Here, the
precise sequence is translated into protein
RNA splicing Coding sequence is interrupted by non-coding
sequences
Removal of the introns in RNA transcript
modification is called RNA splicing
Splicing occurs in the nucleus before transport to the cytoplasm
Exons are expressed sequences: these sequences are those present in mature mRNA
Trang 6Gene
A gene is a length of DNA or RNA with a
suitable number of base sequences to code
for the production of a single polypeptide
chain In Man, genes exist in homologous
pairs within an allele
It consists of exons and introns
Gene mutations;
Mismatch: change in the nucleotide
Inversion: nucleotide base removed,
reverse directed & reinserted
Point mutation; single base pair
substitution
Genome
• DNA
• Only about 5% of DNA codes for proteins
• Human genome: 30.000 genes
• Each cell expresses 16.000 genes
• Housekeeping genes: genes expressed in all
cells to provide basic function for cell
survival (constitutive)
• Southern blotting detects DNA
Transcriptome
• mRNA
• Microarray analysis of transcriptome
identify the expressed genes
• Northern blotting detects RNA
Proteome
• Protein
• Analysis of the proteome is better as it
detects changes at the protein level, not
reflected at transcriptome level due to Post
translation processing (Bioinformatics)
• Western blotting can be used to detect and
quantify proteins
Molecular biology techniques
The following table shows a very basic summary of molecular biology techniques
Technique Description Southern
blotting
Detects DNA Northern
blotting
Detects RNA Western
blotting
Detects proteins Uses gel electrophoresis to separate native proteins by 3-D structure Examples include the confirmatory HIV test
Molecular biology techniques
SNOW (South - NOrth - West)
DROP (DNA - RNA - Protein)
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
A type of biochemical assay used to detect antigens and antibodies
A colour changing enzyme is attached to the antibody if looking for an antigen and to an antigen if looking for an antibody
The sample therefore changes colour if the antigen or antibody is detected
An example includes the initial HIV test
DNA analysis Direct testing;
Identify abnormality within a well-known specific gene
Restriction enzymes digestion
Southern blotting
Indirect testing; (linkage analysis)
Used when the gene in question has not been identified before It involves tracing DNA markers in more than generation within a family
Trang 7This is used to determine the rough location of the
gene responsible for disease, relative to another
DNA sequence which has its position already known
(a 'genetic marker') Disease genes are mapped by
measuring recombination against a panel of
different markers This can identify the region of the
genome in which the disease gene lies, then allowing
more detailed investigation of this region
Southern blotting is a laboratory procedure in which
DNA fragments that have been electrophoresed
through a gel are transferred to a solid membrane
such as nitrocellulose The DNA can then be
hybridized with a labelled probe and exposed to X
ray film
'In situ hybridization' It uses a labelled
complementary DNA or RNA probe to localise a
specific sequence within a tissue Firstly, the tissues
are treated to fix the target, and then the probe is
added This then hybridises to the target, following
which excess probe is washed away In the classical
form, the probe is labelled with radiolabelled bases,
which can then be identified using plain film
FISH is a form of in situ hybridisation in which the
probe is labelled with fluorescent bases, which can
then be visualised under a fluorescent microscope
Somatic cell hybridisation is a physical gene
mapping technique in which somatic cells from two
different species are fused and allowed to undergo
cell division Chromosomes from one species are
selectively lost, resulting in clones with only one or a
few chromosomes from one of the species
SSCP is a technique for detecting variation in DNA
sequence by running single-stranded DNA fragments
through a non-denaturing gel Fragments with
differing secondary structure (conformation) caused
by sequence variation will migrate at different rates
Occurs in gametes Results in 2 diploid
Daughter cells contain one homologue of each chromosome pair and are therefore genetically different
Mitosis
Mitosis occurs during the M phase of the cell cycle It describes the process in which somatic cells divide and replicate producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells This allows tissue to grow and renew itself
During the S phase of the cell cycle the cell prepares itself for division by duplicating the chromosomes The table below shows the phases of mitosis itself: Prophase Chromatin in the nucleus
condenses Prometaphase Nuclear membrane breaks down
allowing the microtubules to attach
to the chromosomes Metaphase Chromosomes aligned at middle of
cell Anaphase The paired chromosomes separate
at the kinetochores and move to opposite sides of the cell Telophase Chromatids arrive at opposite poles
of cell Cytokinesis Actin-myosin complex in the centre
of the cell contacts resulting in it being 'pinched' into two daughter cells
Trang 8• Cell division results in 2 daughter cells, each
of which can
– Enter its own G1 phase
– Become an inactive resting (G0) or
– Die (cell loss fraction)
Cell cycle
G0 'resting' phase
quiescent cells such as hepatocytes
and more permanently resting cells such as neurons
G1 Gap 1, cells increase in size
determines length of cell cycle
M Mitosis - cell division
Cyclins: are proteins key regulators of cell cycles
which can bind to enzymes known as cyclin
dependent kinases These regulate the
progression of the cell cycle
Different cyclins are expressed at different
stages of the cell cycle
Exons: segment of the gene transcripted into mRNA
then translated into proteins
Introns: segment of the gene transcripted then
removed by splicing (not translated)
Promotor elements: binding sites for initiation of
Not obligatory for initiation
But ↑ gene expression
Transcription factor is a protein that binds to
specific DNA sequences, thereby controlling the rate
of transcription of genetic information from DNA to messenger RNA
Basal = constitutive - Housekeeping genes
Inducible = temporal, spatial expression of genes for tissue phenotype
Application of Transcription factor;
Many congenital malformations are due to inherited mutation of TF
Can be oncogenic e.g cMyC, P53
Steroids affect TF
Trang 9Protein synthesis consists of two phases
Transcription is where one strand of (DNA) double
helix is used as a template by (RNA) polymerase to
synthesise mRNA from RNA nucleotides
The mRNA then migrates into the cytoplasm
maturing, for example, by the splicing of non-coding
sequences
Transposons are genetic sequences that
have been transposed from one part of
DNA to another
Translation occurs when the ribosome binds to
mRNA at the start codon and tRNA brings amino
acids into position along the mRNA template
Ribosomal RNA interacts with tRNA during
translation by providing peptidyl transferase activity
The ribosome moves from codon to codon
along the mRNA producing a polypeptide
sequence
Translation always begins with a methionine residue
The mRNA is translated in the 5’ to 3’ direction and
is read in groups of 3 bases, which are known as
codons New amino acids are added to the carboxyl
terminus of the growing peptide chain
Plasmids
Are circular molecules of bacterial (DNA) separate
from the bacterial chromosome
They usually:
are small
consist of a few thousand base pairs
carry one or a few genes, and
Have a single origin of replication
Genes on plasmids with multiple copies are usually
expressed at higher levels
In nature these genes often encode for proteins such
as those needed for bacterial resistance
Plasmids can be used to clone genes by splicing a
particular gene into a plasmid and then allowing the
bacteria to multiply - this is then called recombinant
Bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics by gaining genes that encode for particular proteins that offer protection to the organism
Sometimes this is by mutation and at other times the gene may be acquired from another bacterial species
The genes are usually found in plasmids - circular segments of DNA separate from the bacterial chromosome
Plasmids can easily spread from one bacteria to another - a sort of resistance package that bacteria can share
Restriction enzymes cut DNA at sequences specific
for each restriction enzyme HindIII and EcoRI are examples of restriction enzymes
DNA ligase and polymerase are involved in joining
and linking DNA together
EX: Two strains of Staph aureus are isolated and both are resistant to ampicillin Strain 1 retains its resistance to amplicillin when grown from multiple generations in the absence of ampicillin However strain 2 loses its resistance when grown in the absence of ampicillin Which of the following best explains the loss of antibiotic resistance in strain 2?
Answer: e) Loss of a plasmid containing the resistance gene Bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics by gaining genes which encode particular proteins which offer protection organism
Sometimes this occurs by mutation but at other times gene may be acquired from another bacterial species The genes are contained in plasmids (circular segments of DNA) separate from bacterial chromosome Plasmids can easily spread from one bacteria or equally lost Transfer, loss and gain of plasmids are relatively common compared to single mutations
Trang 10PCR
PCR is a molecular genetic investigation technique
The main advantage of PCR is its sensitivity
Only one strand of sample DNA is needed to detect a
particular DNA sequence
It now has many uses including prenatal diagnosis,
detection of mutated oncogenes and diagnosis of
infections
PCR is also extensively used in forensics
Prior to the procedure it is necessary to have two
DNA oligonucleotide primers These are
complimentary to specific DNA sequences at either
end of the target DNA
Initial prep:
Sample of DNA is added to test tube along
with two DNA primers
a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq) is
added
The following cycle then takes place
Mixture is heated to almost boiling point causing denaturing (uncoiling) of DNA
Mixture is the allowed to cool: complimentary strands of DNA pair up, as there is an excess of the primer sequences they pair with DNA preferentially The above cycle is then repeated, with the amount
of DNA doubling each time
Reverse transcriptase PCR
used to amplify RNA
RNA is converted to DNA by reverse transcriptase
gene expression in the form of mRNA (rather than the actually DNA sequence) can therefore
be analyzed Using the enzyme reverse transcriptase, the cDNA is then amplified by conventional polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Trang 11Apoptosis
Physiological process of programmed cell
death (in contrast to necrosis which is
pathological)
A key event to initiation of apoptosis is the
activation of a cascade of
cysteine-aspartate specific proteases known as
caspases
Cell shrinkage, compaction of chromatin,
nuclear & cytoplasmic apoptotic bodies’
phagocytised by MQ,
Laddering of DNA on electrophoresis gel by
activation of intracellular nucleases
Programmed cell death: naturally
occurring cell death due to activation of a
set of genes in response to external signals
e.g from neighbour or extracellular matrix
Apoptosis webbed fingers, selection of
neurons after maturation of (normal Apoptosis in embryo)
Apoptosis of excess or auto-reactive T
lymphocytes (normal Apoptosis in
adult)
Removal of virally infected cells
Removal of cells that have undergone DNA damage
Disease of excess and insufficient apoptosis:
Excess:
o Neurodegenerative dis Alzheimer,
Parkinson’s
o HIV (CD4 cells die through
programmed cell death)
Insufficient
o Cancer
o Autoimmune Factors that + apoptosis;
P53,
Fas, CD95 (receptor for TNF),
Factors that - apoptosis;
Bcl2 (survival signals), Bcl-2 inhibits
apoptosis; preventing p53 mediated cell destruction and prevents cell death
B catenin accumulation adenoma
Apoptosis occur through proteases called caspases
(e.g ICE= IL-1B converting enzyme) that + endonucleases
Caspases = cysteine aspartate specific proteases Cancer resists apoptosis by;
Mutation of P53
Over-expression of Bcl2
Causing apoptosis of cytotoxic T cells (TNF
like + Fas)
Trang 12Oncogenes:
Are endogenous human (DNA) sequences that arise
from normal genes called proto-oncogenes
Proto-oncogenes: are
Normally expressed in many cells,
particularly during fetal development,
Play an important regulatory role in cell
growth and development
Alterations in the proto-oncogene can activate an
oncogene, which produces unregulated gene
activity, contributing directly to tumourogenesis
Oncogene alterations are important causes of:
Ras is the commonest oncogene is involved in
sporadic tumours (colon and lung) and
rhabdomyosarcomas
C-myc: Burkitt's lymphoma (C-myc is translocated
intact from its normal position on chromosome 8 to
chromosome 14)
Philadelphia Chr.bcr + abl (9; 22) fusion protein
tumour growth
N-myc: Neuroblastoma
SRC oncogene is associated with sarcoma
Tumour suppressor genes
Genes which normally control the cell cycle
Loss of function results in an increased risk
of cancer
Both alleles must be mutated before cancer occurs (recessive)
Examples
Gene Associated cancers
Li-Fraumeni syndrome
BRCA1 Breast and ovarian cancer BRCA2 Breast and ovarian cancer
Multiple tumor suppressor 1 (MTS-1, p16)
Melanoma
Colorectal, pancreatic
or oesophageal cancers
DCC
Tumour suppressor genes - loss of function results in
an increased risk of cancer
Oncogenes - gain of function results in an increased risk of cancer
P53
P53 is a tumour suppressor gene located on chromosome 17p It is the most commonly mutated gene in breast, colon and lung cancer
p53 is thought to play a crucial role in the cell cycle, preventing entry into the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired It may also be a key regulator
of apoptosis Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant disorder characterised by the early onset of a variety
of cancers such as sarcomas and breast cancer It is caused by mutation in the p53 gene
Trang 13P27
Tumor suppressor gene through down regulation of
cell cycle (cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor), if
downregulated sporadic Cancer colon
BRCA 1
Lifetime Breast Cancer Risk 60%
Lifetime Ovarian Cancer Risk 40%
BRCA 2
Lifetime Breast Cancer Risk 45%
Lifetime Ovarian Cancer Risk 15%
NOTE Lifetime risk means the chance of developing
cancer by the age 70 and the above figures are
applied to females
Nitric oxide
Previously known as endothelium derived relaxation
factor, nitric oxide (NO) has emerged as a molecule,
which is integral to many physiological and
pathological processes It is formed from L-arginine
and oxygen by nitric oxide synthetase (NOS) An
inducible form of NOS has been shown to be present
in macrophages Nitric oxide has a very short half-life
(seconds), being inactivated by oxygen free radicals
Effects
Acts on guanylate cyclase leading to raised
intracellular cGMP levels and therefore
decreasing Ca2+ levels
vasodilation, mainly venodilation
Inhibits platelet aggregation
Clinical relevance
Underproduction of NO is implicated in
hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
lack of NO is thought to promote
atherosclerosis
in sepsis increased levels of NO contribute to
septic shock
organic nitrates (metabolism produces NO) is
widely used to treat cardiovascular disease
(e.g angina, heart failure)
sildenafil is thought to potentiate the action
of NO on penile smooth muscle and is used in
the treatment of erectile dysfunctions
Atrial natriuretic peptide
Secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume
secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left)
28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases Actions
natriuretic, i.e promotes excretion of sodium
in response to strain
Whilst heart failure is the most obvious cause of raised BNP levels any cause of left ventricular dysfunction such as myocardial ischaemia or valvular disease may raise levels Raised levels may also be seen due to reduced excretion in patients with chronic kidney disease Factors which reduce BNP levels include treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers and diuretics Effects of BNP
vasodilator
diuretic and natriuretic
Suppresses both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
BNP synthesis is increased by thyroid hormones as well as glucocorticoids, endothelin-1, angiotensin-II and tachycardia, independent of the haemodynamic effects of these factors
Trang 14Clinical uses of BNP
diagnosing patients with acute dyspnoea
a low concentration of BNP(< 100pg/ml)
makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely,
but raised levels should prompt further
investigation to confirm the diagnosis
NICE currently recommends BNP as a
helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart
failure
Prognosis in patients with chronic heart failure
Initial evidence suggests BNP is an
extremely useful marker of prognosis
Guiding treatment in patients with chronic heart
failure
effective treatment lowers BNP levels
Screening for cardiac dysfunction
not currently recommended for population
screening
Prostacyclin
Prostacyclin is mainly synthesized by vascular
endothelium and smooth muscle Effects include:
Inhibitor of platelet aggregation - does not
influence platelet degranulation
Relaxation of smooth muscle
Reduction of systemic and pulmonary
vascular resistance by direct vasodilation
Natriuresis in kidney
Endothelin Endothelin is a potent, long-acting vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor It is secreted initially as a prohormone by the vascular endothelium and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme It acts via interaction with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C leading to calcium release Endothelin is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases including primary pulmonary hypertension (endothelin antagonists are now used), cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome and Raynaud's
Primary pulmonary hypertension
Vasodilatation & vasoconstriction:
Calcitonin-gene related peptide causes vasodilatation
ANB & ANP causes vasodilatation
ADH acts on the vasopressor receptors to cause vasoconstriction
Endothelin is also a vasoconstrictor as is renin
Somatostatin is also recognised to produce vasoconstriction of the splanchnic system
Trang 15Pro-inflammatory cytokines
A proinflammatory cytokine is a cytokine, which
promotes systemic inflammation
Il-1, TNF, TGF-B, Heat shock protein, free radicals
etanercept: fusion protein that mimics the
inhibitory effects of naturally occurring
soluble TNF receptors, subcutaneous
administration
adalimumab: monoclonal antibody,
subcutaneous administration
adverse effects of TNF blockers include
reactivation of latent tuberculosis and
o Tissue repair (initiate and terminate)
o Increase extracellular matrix
o Fibrosis
Tissue injury + plat release of TGF-B
chemotaxis monocytes, neutrophils and
t cell and fibroblast
It induce monocytes to (+ fibroblast GF,
TNF, IL-1)
Involved in glomerulosclerosis, hep fibrosis,
pulm fibrosis, bleomycin lung
HSPs (Heat shock proteins)
• Heat, chemicals, free radicals ↑ damage
of intracellular proteins ↑ HSP ↑ cell resistance to stress through;
- protein folding & unfolding
- Degradation of protein (by ubiquitination)
• Dis associated; if mutated cataract, motor neuron deg
Free radicals
Any molecule with 1 or more unpaired electron (more reactive); peroxide –HCOO, superoxide O2, hydroxyl-O, nitric oxide NO
• NB; hydroxyl is the most reactive
• Action;
- lysosomes
- Lipid peroxidation of membrane
- Mutations (by attaching purines &
pyrimidine)
• Diseases athero, cancer, neurodeg (MND)
• Free radical scavengers;
- α tocopherol (Vit E)
• Immunoglobulin superfamily (CD2, CD3, NCA (neural cell adh), ICAM (intercellular) bind to LFA (lymph funct ass Ag) to recruit lymphocytes
• Integrin (cell to matrix) Integrins are surface receptors by which cells are attached to extracellular matrix
• Cadherins (Nerve &Muscle) in embryo
• Selectins (leukocytes to endoth in inflam, over expressed in autoimmune viral hepatitis, organ rejection)
Trang 16Stem cells
• Progenitor cells
• Present in certain tissues e.g BM,
embryonic
• Embryonic totipotent (any tissue)
• BM Bl cells only, can be recruited by Ag
sorting with CD34 Ab & undergo trans
• differentiation to non-hematologic cells
Membrane receptors There are four main types of membrane receptor: ligand-gated ion channels, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors and G protein-coupled receptors
Ligand-gated ion channel receptors
Generally mediate fast responses
e.g nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, glutamate receptors
Guanylate cyclase receptors
Contain intrinsic enzyme activity
e.g atrial natriuretic factor, brain natriuretic peptide
Tyrosine kinase receptors
Intrinsic tyrosine kinase: insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), epidermal growth factor (EGF)
Receptor-associated tyrosine kinase: growth hormone, prolactin, interferon, interleukin
The bcr-abl fusion protein is the oncogene from the Philadelphia chromosome found in CML It is a potent tyrosine kinase which stimulates signal transduction and hence mitosis
7-helix membrane-spanning domains
Consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta and gamma
The alpha subunit is linked to GDP.Ligand binding causes conformational changes to receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP,and the alpha subunit is activated
G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq)
Trang 17Gs Gi Gq Mechanism Activates adenylate cyclase →
increases cAMP → activates
protein kinase A
Inhibits adenylate cyclase → decreases cAMP → inhibits protein kinase A
Activates phospholipase C → splits PIP2 to IP3 & DAG → activates protein kinase C Examples • Beta-1 receptors
• D2 receptors (dopamine)
• GABA-B receptor
• Alpha-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine)
• H1 receptors (histamine)
• V1 receptors (vasopressin)
• M1, M3 receptors (acetylcholine)
Second messengers
Overview
many different types
allow amplification of external stimulus
cAMP system Phosphoinositol system cGMP
system
Tyrosine kinase system Ligand:
Neurotransmitters
(Receptor)
Epinephrine (α2, β1, β2) Acetylcholine (M2)
Epinephrine (α1) Acetylcholine (M1, M3)
angiotensin II, GnRH, GHRH*, Oxytocin, TRH , ADH
ANP, Nitric oxide
insulin, growth hormone, IGF, PDGF
Primary effector Adenylyl cyclase Phospholipase C Guanylate
cyclase
Receptor tyrosine kinase
cGMP Protein
phosphatase
*the cAMP pathway is the most important
Trang 18Insulin acts through mitogen-activated protein
(MAP) kinase pathway, as does growth hormone
(GH) and prolactin
Nitric oxide: (cGMP) as the second messenger
Pioglitazone acts through: (PPAR) gamma receptor
GH like TNF alpha: via the janus kinases/signal
transducers and activators of transcription
(JAK-STAT) pathway
Cholera toxin activates adenylate cyclase with
generation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate
(cAMP) which leads to the activation of luminal
sodium pumps and the secretory diarrhoea
Phosphorylation of specific tyrosine residues of
components of cell signalling pathways is often a
key event in the activation of the pathway
Receptors
Cell membrane surface receptors;
Ligand-gated ion channel receptors
Tyrosine kinase receptors
The complex travel to the nucleus & bind to
hormone responsive elements
When it binds T3 it is able to bind to the thyroid
hormone response element (TRE) in the promoter
region of thyroid hormone responsive genes and
initiates transcription
Chemical classes of hormones
Amino acid derived –
o Melatonin and
o Thyroxin,
o Catecholamine ,
o Serotonin
Polypeptide and proteins
o Small peptide hormones: TRH and
TSH
Eicosanoids – hormones derive from lipids such
as arachidonic acid, lipoxins and prostaglandins
Steroid –the sex hormones estradiol and
testosterone , cortisol , aldosterone ,
progesterone and vitamin D Hormones that are glycoproteins include:
Trang 19Mechanism of resistance
Penicillin is a bactericidal antibiotic which acts
by inhibiting cell wall synthesis
Mutations in penicillin binding proteins - PBPs
(enzymes required for cell wall synthesis) result
in penicillin resistance
Rifampicin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic which
acts by inhibiting protein synthesis
Mutations in rpoB gene cause alterations in the
bacterial DNA dependent RNA transcriptase
which prevents the binding of rifampicin
Gentamicin is synergistic to the action of
benzylpenicillin Benzylpenicillin is bactericidal,
inhibiting cell wall synthesis, enabling
gentamicin to enter the bacterial cell
It acts at the level of the ribosome, inhibiting
protein synthesis.(translation)
Glycopeptides inhibit cell wall synthesis through
steric hindrance of peptidoglycans, components
of the bacterial cell wall
Trimethoprim interferes with the action of
dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)
DHFR is an enzyme that converts dihydrofolic to
tetrahydrofolic acid, an essential stage in
bacterial purine and, ultimately DNA synthesis
Ciprofloxacin interferes with DNA synthesis by
disrupting the function of DNA gyrase
Therapeutic drug monitoring
trough levels immediately before dose
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
The ESR is a non-specific marker of inflammation and depends on both the size, shape and number of red blood cells and the concentration of plasma proteins such as fibrinogen, alpha2-globulins and gamma globulins
Causes of a high ESR
The anion gap is calculated by:
(sodium + potassium) - (bicarbonate + chloride)
A normal anion gap is 8-14 mmol/L
It is useful to consider in patients with a metabolic acidosis:
Causes of a normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis
gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss: diarrhoea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula
renal tubular acidosis
drugs: e.g acetazolamide
ammonium chloride injection
Addison's disease
Trang 20Causes of a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis
lactate: shock, hypoxia
ketones: diabetic ketoacidosis, alcohol
urate: renal failure
acid poisoning: salicylates, methanol
Botulinum toxin
As well as the well publicised cosmetic uses of
Botulinum toxin ('Botox') there are also a number of
licensed indications:
blepharospasm
hemifacial spasm
focal spasticity including cerebral palsy
patients, hand and wrist disability
associated with stroke
spasmodic torticollis
severe hyperhidrosis of the axillae
achalasia
Concerning the respiratory cell biology of
an asthmatic individual, which of the following is
true === T cells are mobile and contribution to
asthma is via cytokine Production
Causes of a raised amylase are:
Trang 21Meralgia paraesthetica
Basics
Caused by compression of lateral
cutaneous nerve of thigh
Typically burning sensation over
antero-lateral aspect of thigh
Trauma around the inguinal ligament
can lead to damage in the lateral cutaneous nerve supplying the anterolateral portion of the thigh It is a purely sensory nerve, which travels lateral to the psoas muscle
EX: A 50-year-old woman has right-sided
weakness, headache and vomiting On
examination she has a hemiplegia affecting the
right face, arm and leg She also has unilateral
internuclear ophthalmoplegia with failure of
adduction to the left and nystagmus to the left
Fundoscopy reveals papilloedema In this
patient, the papilloedema is due to obstruction
at : The aqueduct of the midbrain (the aqueduct
of Sylvius) runs in the tegmentum of the
midbrain and joins the third and fourth
ventricles Compression of the aqueduct can
result in obstructive hydrocephalus and
papilloedema
Headache and vomiting can occur because of
raised intracranial pressure Malignant or benign
intracranial tumors, colloidal cysts, arachnoid
cysts, and neurocysticercosis can also cause
compression and need to be ruled out
Most noradrenaline is taken up back into
neurosecretory granules MAO and COMT
metabolise NA in small amounts
The cord is tapered at the lower end to form the
EX: Which one of the following features is consistent with higher cortical involvement rather than a diagnosis of a subcortical lacunar stroke? Answer: c) dysphasia Evidence of higher cortical involvement, for example - dysphasia, dyscalculia or or disturbance of consciousness, would not be consistent with a lacunar syndrome
EX: A 40 year old man has an anterior mediastinal mass seen on CT scan Which of the following is likely to be a cause for the mass?
The four Ts for mediastinal masses (anterior) are thyroid, thymoma, teratoma and tumour (lymphomas)
Trang 22Caudate nucleus, putamen and globus pallidus
are areas within the basal ganglia which, when
impaired, can lead to
Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome
Striatum (caudate nucleus) of the basal ganglia :
Huntington chorea
Hippocampus pathology is associated with
short-term memory impairment (for
example, Alzheimer's disease)
Substantia nigra of the basal ganglia:
Parkinson's disease
Amygdala: Kluver-Bucy syndrome
(hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia,
visual agnosia
Lateral geniculate nucleus pathology causes a
visual field defect
Red nucleus is associated with tremor, which is
present both at rest and during action (for
example, multiple sclerosis tremor)
Oxygen Dissociation Curve
Acidosis raised 2,3 DPG, raised temperature, hypoxia and anaemia all shift the O2-Hb dissociation curve to the right, leading to reduced affinity to O2
B cells are not only produced in the bone
marrow but also mature in thymus However, the precursors of T cells leave the bone marrow
and mature in the thymus
EX: A postgraduate student is studying HIV replication Which of the following is important
in the replication or transmission of HIV-1?
Answer: c) GP 120 HIV reverse transcriptase, integrase and protease are key enzymes essential for HIV replication The HIV genome contains the genes: tat and rev along with nef, env, gag and pol The GP 120 is the major protein on the surface of HIV that interacts with host cells HIV binds to cell surface CD4 but enters cells through chemokine receptors including CXCR4 and CCR5 Thymidine kinase is produced by the herpes simplex virus
Trang 23Lung anatomy
The lower parts of the lung and pleura overlap
the right surface of the liver The apical pleura
and lung project about 3–4 cms above the inner
aspect of the clavicle The horizontal fissure
demarcates the middle lobe from the upper lobe
on the right side The lower margin of the pleura
is about two ribs below the lower margin of the
lung
Behind (posterior to) the left main bronchus
The descending aorta lies behind
(posterior to) the left main bronchus
The ascending aorta is anterior to the
pulmonary trunk
The left pulmonary artery is anterior to
the left main bronchus
The right main bronchus should be
beside the left following bifurcation of the trachea
The superior vena cava can be found
next to the ascending aorta
The oesophagus is also a posterior
structure to the left main bronchus
In human anatomy, an azygos lobe is a
congenital variation of the upper lobe of the
The left atrial appendage is not readily seen on transthoracic echocardiography and requires transoesophageal echocardiography
Hand action:
Flexion of the fingers and thumb abduction is
supplied by the median nerve
Extension of the fingers are supplied by radial nerve
Adduction of thumb is supplied by ulnar nerve
Global muscle wasting of the hand indicates damage to both the median and ulnar nerves
Types of Cervical Radiculopathy
Symptoms differ depending on which nerve is affected For example, if the nerve root that runs above the C6 vertebra is affected, a physician will use the term “C6 radiculopathy”
C5 radiculopathy can cause pain
and/or weakness in the shoulders and upper arms Especially may cause discomfort around the shoulder blades
It rarely causes numbness or tingling Weakness: shoulder abduction
C6 radiculopathy (one of the most
common) causes pain and/or weakness along the length of the arm, including the biceps, wrists, and the thumb and index finger
- Weakness: elbow flexion, wrist extension
C7 radiculopathy (the most common)
causes pain and/or weakness from the neck to the hand and can include the triceps and the middle finger
Weakness: elbow extension, wrist
Trang 24 C8 radiculopathy causes pain from the
neck to the hand Patients may experience weakness in hand grip, and pain and numbness can radiate along the inner side of the arm, ring, and little fingers
- Weakness: thumb extension, wrist ulnar deviation
Sensory
On sensory examination, patients with
a clear-cut radiculopathy should demonstrate a decrease in or loss of sensation in a dermatomal distribution
In addition, patients with radiculopathy
may have hyperesthesia to light touch and pinprick examination
The sensory examination can be quite
subjective because it requires a response by the patient
Extensor pollicis brevis and extensor carpi
ulnaris are supplied by C7/8
A pattern of rapidly recruited low amplitude
short duration motor units on the
electromyogram (EMG) would be considered to
represent myopathic changes rather than
de-innervation
The combination of diplopia, hemiparesis and a
lower motor neurone facial nerve lesion should
lead you to consider a pontine stroke
Primarily retroperitoneal organs are those that
develop and remain behind (outside) the peritoneum (kidneys, aorta, pancreas)
Secondarily retroperitoneal organs are those that develop within the peritoneal sac but are pushed behind it during growth (e.g ascending colon, most of duodenum)
Trang 25The lateral pontine syndrome classically consists
of:
Contralateral loss of pain and
temperature sensation in the trunk and extremities - lateral spinothalamic tract
Ipsilateral paralysis of the upper and
lower face (lower motor neurone lesion), ipsilateral loss of lacrimation and reduced salivation, ipsilateral loss
of taste from the anterior two thirds of the tongue, loss of the corneal reflex (efferent limb) - facial nucleus and nerve (VII)
Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature
sensation of the face - spinal trigeminal nucleus and tract
Nystagmus, nausea, vomiting, vertigo -
vestibular nuclei
Ipsilateral central deafness - cochlear
nuclei
Ipsilateral limb and gait apraxia -
middle and inferior cerebellar peduncle
Ipsilateral Horner's syndrome -
descending sympathetic tract
Nerve lesions of upper limb:
lower brachial plexus injury; sudden upward movement of the abducted arm This causes features of an ulnar nerve palsy which is supplied by the lower brachial plexus roots C8 and T1 (Klumpke's paralysis)
The median and radial nerves can be excluded because of the typical ulnar nerve findings
The ulnar nerve can be damaged at the elbow from chronic pressure, leaning on the elbows, and direct trauma However, this injury is a stretching injury of the arm
A cervical spine injury would be expected to have other associated neurological signs
Nerve lesions of upper limb
Total ulnar nerve paralysis === Inability to grip a sheet of Paper between his fingers when the hand is placed flat on the table fanning of fingers
A 78-year-old man had poliomyelitis as a child, which left him with total paralysis of the left deltoid muscle. Which feature is most likely to bepresent on clinical Examination ===== Detectable weakness in drawing the arm forward and internally rotating the shoulder when this is compared with the right side
Trang 26The musculocutaneous nerve supples the
biceps, coracobrachialis and brachialis
muscles It also supplies sensation over the
lateral aspect of the forearm
Nerve lesios:
The lacrimal gland is supplied by the facial
nerve
The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies the
parotid salivary gland controlling salivary
secretions
The oculomotor nerve carries
parasympathetic efferents to the sphincter
pupillae muscle
The optic nerve carries sympathetic
postganglionic fibres to the dilator pupillae
Trang 27The brachial artery bifurcates into the ulnar
and radial arteries at the level of
The head of the radius
Trang 29The subclavian vein is a continuation of the
axillary vein, beginning at the lateral border of
the first rib
It passes anterior to scalenus anterior
The subclavian and internal jugular vein unite to
form the brachiocephalic vein, subsequently the
left and right brachiocephalic veins unite to
form the superior vena cava
The thoracic duct enters the left subclavian
The brachiocephalic trunk is a branch of the
aortic arch, which divides to form the right
subclavian and right common carotid arteries
The internal jugular vein
The internal jugular vein originates at the jugular foramen
It begins posterior to the internal carotid artery and then passes to its lateral side
As it descends in the carotid sheath it lies lateral first to the internal then the common carotid artery within the carotid sheath
It then passes anterior to the subclavian artery
to join the subclavian vein to form the brachiocephalic vein
The internal jugular vein receives a lymphatic trunk at its union with the subclavian vein
The internal jugular vein is usually of considerable size, and the right internal jugular
is usually larger than the left
The external jugular vein drains into the subclavian vein
It passes anterior to the subclavian artery to join the subclavian vein and then form the
brachiocephalic vein; the left and right brachiocephalic veins unite to form the superior vena cava
The internal jugular vein receives a lymphatic trunk at its union with the subclavian vein
Trang 30The external jugular vein drains into the
subclavian vein
Body mass index (BMI) of 38, where is
the correct position for central venous
cannulation ==== 2 cm under the mid-point of
the clavicle and 1 cm laterally
BLOOD SUPPLY UPPER LIMB
The internal thoracic artery arises from the
subclavian artery
The inferior and superior ulnar collateral
arteries and the profundabrachii are branches of
the brachial artery
The subscapular artery arises from the axillary
and is its largest branch, eventually
anastomosing with the lateral thoracic and
intercostal arteries
Mallet finger
The x ray demonstrates a small avulsion fracture
from the base of the distal phalanx where the
extensor tendon attaches Given the clinical
findings and x ray the diagnosis is mallet finger
A flexion force on the tip of the extended finger
jolts the DIPJ into flexion This may result in a
stretching or tearing of the tendon substance or
an avulsion of the tendon's insertion on the
dorsal lip of the distal phalanx base
The central slip is part of the extensor expansion
on the dorsal aspect of the finger The central
slip inserts onto the middle phalanx as is causes
extension at the proximal interphalangeal joint
(PIPJ) Hence, this option is incorrect
A DIPJ dislocation is not likely as the joint moves
freely on examination and is congruent on the x
Skier's thumb
Was formerly known as gamekeeper's thumb, and it relates to injury to the base of the thumb, resulting in damage or rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament
Once acute swelling has subsided, then gross instability of the thumb may result
Where a complete tear of the ligament is suspected, MRI may be valuable in confirming the diagnosis, as surgical repair is required
In cases of a partial rupture, immobilisation in a thumb spica is the standard therapy
General notes
A 78-year-old man had poliomyelitis as a child, which left him with total paralysis of the left deltoid muscle. Which feature is most likely to be present on clinical Examination = Detectable weakness in drawing the arm forward and internally rotating the shoulder when this is compared with the right side
A posterior gastric ulcer if led to bleeding mostly from Splenic artery
Which of the following stems best describes
a property of hyaline cartilage === It is avascular
Renal anatomy
Trang 31The tables below show the anatomical relations
The right and left renal arteries lie in the
trans pyloric plane at the level of the first
Unconventional myosins do not form filaments and perform varied functions
in a broad range of cells (for example, organelle transport, endocytosis)
Myosin contains adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and actin-binding sites
Other myosin related genetic disorders besides the heavy chain mutations in cardiomyopathy include Carney's complex (trismus-
pseudocamptodactyly), type 1b Usher syndrome and non-syndromic deafness
Troponin
is a component of thin filaments (along with actin and tropomyosin), and is the protein to which calcium binds to accomplish this regulation
Troponin has three subunits, TnC, TnI, and TnT
When calcium is bound to specific sites on TnC, the structure of the thin filament changes in such a manner that myosin (a molecular motor organised in muscle thick filaments) attaches to thin filaments and produces force and/or movement
In the absence of calcium, tropomyosin interferes with this action of myosin, and therefore muscles remain relaxed
Trang 32Common sex chromosome aneuploidies
All Diagnosis is by chromosomal analysis
Turner's syndrome: 45, XO or 45, X
It is caused by either the presence of only one sex
chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of
one of the X chromosomes Turner's syndrome is
Bicuspid aortic valve (15%),
coarctation of the aorta (5-10%)
Primary amenorrhea (streak ovaries), low
estrogen with high gonadotrophins and infertility
Cystic hygroma (often diagnosed
prenatally)
High-arched palate
Short fourth metacarpal
Multiple pigmented naevi
lymphoedema in neonates (especially
feet)
Renal dysfunction due to horseshoe
kidney
Hypertension is quite common in Turner
syndrome (10%) and is typically idiopathic - essential Or possibly by coarcitation of aorta and renal dysfunction
There is also an increased incidence of
autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune
thyroiditis) and Crohn's disease
Noonan's syndrome: 45 XY 'male Turner's',
Noonan’s, autosomal dominant condition
associated with a normal karyotype It is thought
to be caused by a defect in a gene on chromosome
Triple x (karyotype 47, XXX) (FOR READ)
Chromosomal analysis is useful for Turner's
(XO), Down's (trisomy 21) and Klinefelter's (XXY)
In Fragile X, Huntington’s disease (Trinucleotide repeat disorders), DNA analysis is useful to determine trinucleotide repeats (CGG repeats)
Trang 33Common autosomal chromosome aneuploidies
Down's syndrome: Trisomy 21, mongolism
Risk of Down's syndrome with increasing
maternal age
One way of remembering this is
by starting at 1/1,000
at 30 years and then dividing the
denominator by 3 (i.e 3 times more common) for
every extra 5 years of age
translocation
(usually onto 14)
5% 10-15% if mother is
translocation carrier 2.5% if father is translocation carrier Mosaicism 1% An individual has 2 or
more genetic cell lines
The chance of a further child with Down's
syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother
is less than 35 years old If the trisomy 21 is a
result of a translocation the risk is much higher
Clinical features
Face: upslanting palpebral fissures,
epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in iris, protruding tongue, small ears, round/flat face
Flat occiput
Single palmar crease, pronounced 'sandal
gap' between big and first toe
Multiple cardiac problems may be present
Endocardial cushion defect (c 40%, also known as atrioventricularseptal canal defects)
Ventricular septal defect (c 30%)
Secundum atrial septal defect (c 10%)
Tetralogy of Fallot (c 5%)
Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (c 5%)
Defects, in order of decreasing frequency, are: (OnExamination)
1 Atrioventricularseptal defect
2 Ventricular septal defect
3 Patent ductusarteriosus
4 Tetralogy of Fallot, and
5 Atrial septal defect
Trang 34Syndrome Key features
Patau syndrome
(trisomy 13) Microcephalic, small eyes
Cleft lip/palate Polydactyly Scalp lesions Edward's syndrome
(trisomy 18) Micrognathia Low-set ears
Rocker bottom feet Overlapping of fingers
Is a primary immunodeficiency disorder caused
by T-cell deficiency and dysfunction?
It is an example of a microdeletion syndrome
Features
At risk of viral and fungal infections
Parathyroid gland hypoplasia →
syndrome Short stature Learning difficulties
Friendly, extrovert personality Transient neonatal
hypercalcaemia Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Note Dominant vs Recessive
• A dominant allele is expressed even if it is paired with a recessive allele
• A recessive allele is only visible when paired with another recessive allele – Recessive alleles are not expressed in the presence of a dominant allele
Expression
• Homozygous: Both alleles alike AA or aa
• Heterozygous: Alleles are different Aa
• Codominant: Two different alleles are both dominant
• A = allele for type A blood
• B = allele for type B blood
• AB = results in type AB blood
No linkage has been established for a particular gene in manic depressive disorder
Trang 35Autosomal dominate:
In autosomal dominant:
Both homozygotes and heterozygotes
manifest disease (there is no carrier state)
Both males and females affected
Only affected individuals can pass on
disease
Disease is passed on to 50% of children
Normally appears in every generation
(although see below)
Risk remains same for each successive
pregnancy
Only one copy of the faulty gene is
required in the genotype for the patient to be a sufferer
Complicating factors:
Non-penetrance: lack of clinical signs and
symptoms (normal phenotype) despite abnormal gene E.g 40% otosclerosis
Spontaneous mutation: new mutation in
one of gametes e.g 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents
Autosomal recessive:
In autosomal recessive:
Only homozygotes are affected
Both males and females affected
Not manifest in every generation - may 'skip a generation'
If two heterozygote parents
25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child
50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child
25% chance of having an unaffected (i.e genotypical) child
If one affected parent (i.e homozygote for gene) and one unaffected (i.e not a carrier or affected)
All the children will be carriers
Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic
in nature and are generally more life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions
Trang 36Autosomal dominant conditions
Autosomal recessive conditions are often thought
to be 'metabolic' as opposed to autosomal
dominant conditions being 'structural', notable
exceptions:
Some 'metabolic' conditions such as
Hunter's and G6PD are X-linked recessive whilst others such as hyperlipidaemia type II and hypokalaemic periodic paralysis are autosomal dominant
Some 'structural' conditions such as
ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich's ataxia are autosomal recessive The following conditions are autosomal dominant:
Achondroplasia
Acute intermittent porphyria (metab)
Adult polycystic disease (renal)
Antithrombin III deficiency (haem)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Familial adenomatous polyposis (GIT)
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (metab)
Hereditary haemorrg Telangiectasia
Hereditary spherocytosis (haem)
Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal canc
Hereditary angio-oedema, (immune.)
Osteogenesis imperfect (rheum)
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (GIT)
Retinoblastoma
Romano-Ward syndrome
Tuberose sclerosis
Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Von Willebrand's disease*
*Type 3 von Willebrand's disease (most severe
form) is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait
Around 80% of patients have type 1 disease
Autosomal recessive conditions
Autosomal recessive conditions are often thought
to be 'metabolic' as opposed to autosomal dominant conditions being 'structural', notable exceptions:
Some 'metabolic' conditions such as Hunter's and G6PD are X-linked recessive whilst others such as hyperlipidemia type
II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis are autosomal dominant
Some 'structural' conditions such as ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich's ataxia are autosomal recessive The following conditions are autosomal recessive:
Albinism (oculocutanous albinism)
Alpha 1-Antitrypsin deficiency
autosomal dominant although the infantile form is autosomal recessive
Sickle cell disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner (sickle cell trait is inherited in
an autosomal dominant manner)
Trang 37Achondroplasia:
An autosomal dominant disorder associated with
short stature It is caused by a mutation in the
fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) genes
This results in abnormal cartilage giving rise to:
Short limbs (rhizomelia) dwarfism with
shortened fingers (brachydactyly) but spinal length is maintained
Large head with frontal bossing
Mid face hypoplasia with a flattened nasal
bridge
'Trident’ hands
Limited elbow extension
Exaggerated lumbar lordosis,
Incidence increases with paternal age
Epiphyseal growth cartilage fails, but there is
normal bone formation and repair There is
therefore no increased risk of fracture The
homozygous form is usually fatal
It may be diagnosed radiographically at birth, or
becomes obvious within the first year with
disparity between a large skull, normal trunk
length and short limbs X Rays show metaphyseal
irregularity, flaring in the long bones, and late
appearing irregular epiphyses The pelvis is
narrow in anteroposterior diameter with deep
sacroiliac notches and short iliac wings The spine
shows progressive narrowing of the
interpedicular distance from top to bottom
(reverse of normal)
Ehler-Danlos syndrome is an autosomal dominant
connective tissue disorder that mostly affects type III
collagen This results in the tissue being more elastic
than normal leading to joint hypermobility and
increased elasticity of the skin
Features and complications
Elastic, fragile skin
Angioid retinal streaks
(FGFR) gene mutations can be associated with
skeletal dysplasias
Marfan's syndrome: an autosomal dominant
connective tissue disorder
It is caused by a defect in the fibrillin-1 gene on
chromosome 15 and affects around 1 in 3,000 people
Lungs: repeated pneumothoraxes
Eyes: upwards lens dislocation (superotemporal ectopia lentis), blue sclera, retinal detachment, early glaucoma, and early cataracts
Myopia
Dural ectasia (ballooning of the dural sac
at the lumbosacral level) The life expectancy 40-50 years With the advent
of regular echocardiography monitoring and blocker/ACE-inhibitor therapy this has improved significantly over recent years Aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death however
beta-Patients with the rarer form of Marfan syndrome, which is characterized by contractural
arachnodactyly instead of loose joints, can usually
be identified by detection of a mutation in the fibrillin-2 gene that is similar in structure to the gene for fibrillin-1
Preliminary data suggest that patients with mutations in the fibrillin-2 gene are not prone to develop aneurysms
Trang 38As well as features similar to Turner's syndrome
(webbed neck, widely-spaced nipples, short
stature, pectus carinatum and excavatum), a
number of characteristic clinical signs may also be
Cause by excessive release of Ca2+ from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle
Associated with defects in a gene on
chromosome 19 encoding the ryanodine
receptor, which controls Ca2+ release from
the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome may have a
Due to defect in huntingtin gene on chromosome 4
Features typical develop after 35 years of age
Chorea
Personality changes (e.g irritability, apathy, depression) and intellectual impairment
Dystonia
Saccadic eye movements Treatment is with phenothiazines (haloperidol) for symptomatic control
Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis:
A rare autosomal dominant disorder characterized by episodes of paralysis, typically occur at night The underlying defect is a mutation
in muscle voltage-gated calcium channels Attacks may be precipitated by carbohydrate meals , onset most commonly in childhood and adolescents Attacks last hours and neurological examination is normally unremarkable in between attacks The average K+ on diagnosis is 2.4 mmol/L1
Diagnosis is often made clinically in association with low potassium but genetic testing can help if known mutations are present Management- lifelong potassium supplementation
Trang 39This disorder is commonly caused by medication,
especially diuretics There is also an inherited
membrane disorder that predisposes patients to
episodes of hypokalaemic periodic paralysis In
the inherited cases, the condition often occurs
during a period of rest after exercise or a meal
Management: Avoiding heavy carbohydrate meals
a very low sodium diet and spironolactone may
prevent attacks
X-linked dominant
The conditions are inherited in a X-linked dominant fashion*:
Alport's syndrome (in around 85% of cases -
10-15% of cases are inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion with rare autosomal dominant variants existing) Features of Alport's syndrome (hereditary nephritis, hematuria, progressive renal failure and high frequency nerve deafness)
is usually more marked in in males
Rett syndrome in girls (regressive progressive
microcephaly, stereotypical hand movement and irregular breath pattern) defect in MeCP 2
Vitamin D resistant rickets
*pseudohypoparathyroidism was previously classified as an X-linked dominant condition but has now been shown to be inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion in the majority of cases
X linked dominant conditions are transmitted by a father to all his daughters and that, on balance, this is a better explanation of the genetics than the tenuous assertion that an autosomal dominant condition has by chance affected three daughters but neither of two sons
They affect both sexes but females more than males
All children of a homozygous mother are affected Half the sons and half the daughters inherit the disorder from an affected mother with the trait
An affected father passes the disease to all his daughters but none of his sons, as in this example
Trang 40X-linked recessive
In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are
affected An exception to this seen in examinations
is patients with Turner's syndrome, who are
affected due to only having one X chromosome
Transmitted by heterozygote females
(carriers)
Male-to-male transmission is not seen
Affected males can only have unaffected sons
and carrier daughters
Each male child of a heterozygous female carrier
has a 50% chance of being affected whilst each
female child of a heterozygous female carrier has a
50% chance of being a carrier
The possibility of an affected father having
children with a heterozygous female carrier is
generally speaking extremely rare However, in
certain Afro-Caribbean communities G6PD
deficiency is relatively common and homozygous
females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme
defect are seen
The abnormal gene is carried on the X
chromosome, and in the carrier female, the
normal allele on her other X chromosome protects
her from the disease Since the male does not have
this protection, he manifests the disease
In X linked inheritance therefore:
Males are all affected
Females only occasionally show mild sign of
disease
Each son of a female carrier has a 1:2 chance
of being affected
Each daughter of a female carrier has a 1:2
risk of being a carrier
Daughters of affected males will all be
carriers, but sons of affected males will not be
affected since the Y chromosome is derived
example, creatine kinase in Duchenne muscular dystrophy
X-linked recessive conditions
The following conditions are inherited in a linked recessive fashion:
X- Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Becker muscular dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Chronic granulomatous disease (in > 70%)
X linked recessive diseases can occur with the
same severity in females in certain situations having
An affected father and carrier mother (seen