Đề thi Olympic lớp 6 năm 2014 huyện Thanh Oai_Tiếng Anh

Thí sinh đọc kỹ hướng dẫn và câu hỏi trước khi ọc kỹ hướng dẫn và câu hỏi trước khi ỹ hướng dẫn và câu hỏi trước khi ướng dẫn và câu hỏi trước khi ẫn và câu hỏi trước khi ỏi t

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TRƯỜNG THCS THANH CAO ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC NĂM HỌC 2013-2014

Môn: TIẾNG ANH 6

Thời gian làm bài 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Họ và tên: Số BD:

(Đề gồm 05 trang, thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này)

PART 1: LISTENING (2,0 pts)

H ƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU NG D N PH N THI NGHE HI U ẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU ẦN THI NGHE HIỂU ỂU

(Bài nghe g m 2 ph n, m i ph n đ c nghe 2 l n Thí sinh đ c k h ng d n và câu h i tr c khi ược nghe 2 lần Thí sinh đọc kỹ hướng dẫn và câu hỏi trước khi ọc kỹ hướng dẫn và câu hỏi trước khi ỹ hướng dẫn và câu hỏi trước khi ướng dẫn và câu hỏi trước khi ẫn và câu hỏi trước khi ỏi trước khi ướng dẫn và câu hỏi trước khi nghe).

I Listen to the conversation between Nam and his mother and then fill in the table (4×0,2= 0,8 pt)

1 Cooking oil

2 Rice

3 Beef

4 Oranges

II You will hear passage about Minh Fill in the missing words in the numbered space: (6×0,2=1,2 pts)

Minh likes walking On the (5) ……… , he often goes walking in the mountain He usually goes with (6)……… friends Minh and his friends (7)………wear strong boots and (8) ……… clothes They always take (9)………… and water and a camping stove Sometimes, they (10)………… overnight

PART 2: PHONETICS (10× 0,2=2,0 pts)

I Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the

others by circling A, B, C or D (5×0,2=1,0 pt)

11 A brush B music C truck D bus

12 A plane B bank C paddy D math

13 A bookstore B history C street D noisy

14 A hour B house C help D home

15 A pupils B works C pens D teachers

II Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C

or D (5×0,2=1,0 pt)

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16 A student B bookshelf C museum D classroom

17 A engineer B television C telephone D breakfast

18 A travel B unload C arrive D correct

19 A after B behind C opposite D under

20 A beautiful B favorite C difficult D delicious

PART 3: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6,0 pts)

I Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences

(10×0, 2=2,0 pts)

21 It’s twelve o’clock, Nam Let’s ……… home

22 Tuan and I ………… badminton in the yard

A playing B am playing C are playing D is playing

23 They are going to New York ………… plane

24 Are there ………… stores on your street?

25 There are many accidents on out roads We must………… discipline

A have B get C be D read

26 It's seven thirty and Minh is late……… school

A to B at C for D in

27 I don’t want much sugar in coffee Just ……… please

28 Are these couches? Yes, ……… are

29 There are …… girls in his class

30 Jack’s brother ………… to music every day

II Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space (10×0,2=2,0 pts)

31 My mother is a of English (TEACH)

32 These children like _ weather (SUN)

33 We like going in his car as he is a driver (CARE)

34 My elder brother plays video games a week (ONE)

35 He turns out to be the student in his class (GOOD)

37 My aunt has two , a boy and a girl (CHILD)

38 September is the month of the year (NINE)

39 My father goes every morning (JOG)

40 What’s Mary’s ? - She’s British (NATION)

III Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets

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41 Oh, no! It (rain) We can’t play tennis It always (rain)

a lot in April

42 They (drink) some fruit juice at the moment

43 She can (speak) English

44 What about (visit) ……… Ngoc Son Temple?

45 What there (be) (drink) for dinner?

IV Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition (5×0,2=1,0 pt)

46 It is hot the summer

47 She has breakfast bread and milk lunch, she has rice, meat, vegetables and orange juice

48 I have lessons 7 o’clock a quarter past eleven

49.They live an apartment their parents

50 “How do you go to school?” – “ my father’s car.”

PART 4: READING (5.0 PTS)

I Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage (10×0,2=2,0 pts)

I live in a house near the sea It is (51) old house, about 100 years old and (52) very small There are two bed rooms upstairs (53) no bathroom The bathroom is down stairs (54) the kitchen and there is a living room where there is a lovely old fire place There is a garden (55) the house The garden (56) down to the beach and in spring and summer (57) flowers every where I like alone (58) my dog, Rack, but we have

a lot of visitors My city friends often stay with (59)

I love my house for (60) reasons the garden, the flowers in summer, the fee in winter, but the best thing is the view from my bedroom window

54 A between B next C near to D next to

55 A in front B front of C of front in D in front of

57 A these are B they are C there are D those are

II Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the following passage

(10×0,2=2,0 pts)

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There are four (61)… in a year (62)… are spring, summer, fall and winter In the (63)

……., the weather is usually warm Sometimes it is cold (64)… not very cold There are (65)…… flowers in the spring In the summer, the day is long and the night is (66)…… People often (67)… swimming in this season The fall is the season (68)…… fruits In the (69)…, it is usually very cold The day is short and the (70)…… is long

61 62 63 64 65

66 67 68 69 70

III Read the following passage and answer the questions below (5×0,2=1,0 pt)

Mr Baker, 45 years old, is a teacher He is English but he lives in France, in the village of Yerville Mr Baker lives in France but he works in England

Every Monday, he leaves home at 2.30 in the morning and drives 101 miles from his village to Boulogne, where he leaves his car and catches the ferry to Folkston Then he catches the train to Maidstone in Kent and arrives at Manor school at 8.25 He teaches French from 9.00 in the morning to 3.30 in the afternoon, and then leaves school He stays

in Maidstone and only comes home on Friday every week

Questions:

71 How old is Mr Baker?

………

72 Where does he work?

………

73 What time does he leave home to work on Monday?

………

74 How does he travel to Boulogne?

………

75 What does he teach?

………

PART 5: WRITING (5.0 PTS)

I Find the mistakes and correct them (5×0,2=1,0 pt))

76 Mr Hien isn’t live in a house in the country

A B C D

77 The Browns are traveling to Ho Chi Minh City in train

A B C D

78 There aren’t a trees to the left of Lan’s house

A B C D

79 Do you know how many teachers does your school have?

A B C D

80 Sorry You can't speak to Jim now He's have a bath

A B C D

II Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one.

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(10 × 0,2 = 2,0 pts)

81 My room is smaller than your room

Your room is………

82 Mr Hung drives very carefully Mr Hung is

83 Does Phong’s school have forty classrooms? Are ………?

84 Does your father cycle to work? Does your father go ?

85 How much does a box of chocolates cost? What ?

86 Nam likes tea Nam’s favorite

87.Phuong has a brother, Nam Phuong is ………

88 What is the height of that building? How

89 Her hair is long It is black and straight She has

90 How about going to Huong Pagoda by minibus? Why

III Write a composition (about 80words) to tell about your mother (2,0 pts) (Don’t show her name, her address) ………

………

……… THE END ……… ……… ………

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-ÁP ÁN

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ Ề THI OLYMPIC NĂM HỌC 2013-2014

Môn: TIẾNG ANH 6

PART 1: LISTENING

I Listen to the conversation between Nam and his mother and then fill in the table (4×0,2= 0,8 pt)

II You will hear passage about Minh Fill in the missing words in the numbered space: (6×0,2=1,2 pts)

5 weekend 6 two 7 always

8 warm 9 food 10 camp

PART 2: PHONETICS (10× 0,2=2,0 pts)

I Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the

others by circling A, B, C or D (5×0,2=1,0 pt)

12 A plane

14 A hour

II Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C

or D (5×0,2=1,0 pt)

17 A engineer

18 A travel

PART 3 VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:

I Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (100,2=2,0 pts)

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21 –A

go

22 –C

are playing

23 –B

by

24 –C

any

25 –A have

26 –C

for

27 - B

a little

28 –A

they

29 – B

no

30 –B listens

II Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space.

(10×0,2=2,0 pts)

31 teacher 32 sunny 33 careful 34 once 35 best

36 busy 37 children 38 ninth 39.jogging 40 nationality

III Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the

brackets (5×0,2=1,0 pt)

41 is raining / rains 42 are drinking 43 speak

44 visiting 45 is there to drink

IV Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition (5×0,2=1,0 pt)

PART 4: READING (5.0 PTS)

I Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage.

(10×0,2=2,0 pts)

51 – B an 52 - A it’s 53 – C but 54 – D next to 55 – D

in front of

56 – C goes 57 – C there are 58 – D with 59 - A me 60 – C many

II Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the following passage (10×0,2=2,0 pts)

III Read the following passage and answer the questions below (5×0,2=1,0 pt

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71 He is 45 years old.

72 He works in France

73 He leaves home at 2.30 in the morning

74 He travels to Boulogne by car

75 He teaches French

PART 5: WRITING (5.0 PTS)

I Find the mistakes and correct them (5×0,2=1,0 pt))

76 – B

isn’t -> doesn’t

77 – D

in -> by

78 – B

a -> any

79 – D does your school have

-> your school has

80 – C have -> having

II Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one (10 × 0,2 = 2,0 pts)

81 Your room is bigger than my room

82 Mr Hung is a careful driver

83 Are there forty classrooms in Phong’s school?

84 Does your father go to work by bike?

85 What is the price of a box of chocolate?

86 Nam’s favorite drink is tea

87 Phuong is Nam’s sister/ brother

88 How high is that building?

89 She has a straight long black hair

90 Why don’t we go to Huong Pagoda by minibus?

III Write a composition (about 80words) to tell about your mother (2,0 pts)

(Don’t show her name, her address)

The essay must have at least three ideas below

1 Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề về mẹ (được 0,25 điểm)

2 Thân bài: Nêu và trình bày được một số đặc điểm của mẹ như: Hình dáng, tính cách,

sở thích, công việc mẹ thường làm hằng ngày, tình cảm của mẹ với mọi người, vv… (được 1,5 điểm)

3 Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở hai phần trước hay tình

cảm của em dành cho mẹ (được 0,25 điểm)

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