Tiếng Anh cho bài thi chuẩn hóa VSTEP 35 GUIDE TO VSTEP (ULIS VNU) + có đáp án. Các dạng đề thi VSTEP mức 35 và hướng dẫn làm bài, tài liệu do trường đại học ngoại ngữ đại học quốc gia hà nội biên soạn năm 2022.
Trang 2on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage
You have 50 minutes to answer all the questions, including the transfer time to the answer sheet
PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10
Phil Morston
It was the classic scenario really My girlfriend didn't want to go travelling I did, so I went on my own I do remember sitting in the plane thinking to myself: 'What have I let myself in for?' Then the first few days in Australia were scary: I was all on my own, with nothing planned, and on the other side of the world I worried much about travelling solo for long time [A] Of course, some you get on with and others you don't, but there's always someone to travel with Some of them had planned every day of every week,
though In practice, things can change and it's great to have the freedom to go with the flow And that's easy enough to do For example, you can take the Oz Experience bus down the west coast, jumping off whenever you want, then catching the next bus when you're ready to move on again Being away for a year, you do occasionally get lonely, so I'd sit down and write a fortnightly email home about everything I'd been up to, and that really cheered me up
Leila Stuart
Without doubt, you meet all sorts of people when you travel alone I even made a friend on the plane out to Australia Some people are keener to make friends than others, of course, but if someone's chosen to do the same type of trip as you, you've probably got lots of ideas in common The advantages of a pre-planned tour are that you can get an agency to take care of all the arrangements, which can be time-consuming to do yourself - but it does mean that you're tied to a predetermined itinerary, which wouldn't suit everyone [B] There's also the safety aspect in terms
of the places you visit often being very remote If you go off trekking in the wilds of a foreign country alone, it could be difficult to get help if things go wrong If you join a group expedition
Trang 3for those parts of your trip, then you have the support of the group leader and your fellow travelling companions
Danny Holt
Travelling solo creates opportunities to meet new people There's no substitute for sharing the experiences of the day with a companion, and being on your own forces you to seek someone out I've got to know people I wouldn't have if I'd been travelling with friends There's also the wonderful freedom to do what you like, when you like, without having to convince anybody else that it's a good idea However, there are downsides; meal times are something I've never really got
to grips with in all the years I've travelled alone But my advice would be to give solo travel a go – it can be very liberating Maybe try a short trip to begin with, just in case it's not for you [C] Another thing is stay in the nicest places your budget permits I've been in a few miserable hostels, and they really can spoil a trip And if you really are happy being anti-social, that MP3 player is great for ensuring the person in the next plane seat, or the poolside know-it-all, doesn't bore you
to death!
Kerry Winterton
Fun as it is, travelling solo does undoubtedly have its low points, including occasional loneliness and the pressure that you're under to make your own mind up about everything I chose to travel alone because I wanted to do something different, with it being the last summer before starting my final year at university The worst things were when I missed people from home, or when I fell out with the people I'd met along the way But I learnt to accept that some people have different attitudes to mine - that you have to put up with irritating people in hostels and accept not having
as much privacy as you're used to at home The best thing for me about travelling alone was that
it was a brilliant experience that enhanced my independence and helped me feel more self-assured [D] I knew I was on my own, which made me make more effort to speak to people and by doing
so I made lots of great friends
1 Look at the four letters [A], [B], [C], and [D] that indicate where the following sentence could
be added to the passage:
“But in no time at all, I'd met up with other travellers.”
Where would the sentence best fit? Choose the place where the sentence fits best
A [A] B [B] C [C] D [C]
2
Trang 42 In the second paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence ‘Without doubt, you meet all sorts of people when you travel alone”?
A I doubt of travelling with all sorts of people
B Travelling with all types of people is inconvenient
C Obviously, when you travel solo you will chance to meet different kinds of people
D I don’t think that you will meet all sort of people when you travel alone
3 What does Phil Morston do when he feels lonely after long time travelling alone?
A Call his girlfriend B Take the Oz Experience bus
C Write an email home D Book a tour with other travellers
4 In what way, does Leila Stuart think that pre-planned tours can be good?
A You can make friends easily B You can meet all types of people
C It is time-consuming D You have an agency to care for your trip
5 Danny Holt’s advice for finding out if travelling alone is suitable for you or not is that
A you should take a short trip first B you should go to the nicest places in the world
C you should plane your meal times D you should bring an MP3
6 Why did Kerry Winterton want to travel solo?
A To make new friends B To do something different
C To have a summer holiday D To see how much she missed her family
7 Who feels more confident after travelling alone
A Phil Morston B Leila Stuart C Danny Holt D Kerry Winterton
8 Who has doubts at the beginning of a solo trip?
A Phil Morston B Leila Stuart C Danny Holt D Kerry Winterton
9 Who appreciates support from other people if travelling in group?
A Phil Morston B Leila Stuart C Danny Holt D Kerry Winterton
10 Who appreciates the advantages of not having fixed plans?
A Phil Morston B Leila Stuart C Danny Holt D Kerry Winterton
PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20
Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet They provide the main source of energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods Carbohydrates range from simple sugars like glucose to complex sugars such as amylose and
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Trang 5amylopectin Nutritionists estimate that carbohydrates should make up about fourth to fifth of a person's diet This translates to about 75-100 grams of carbohydrates per day
one-A diet that is deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person's health When the body lacks a sufficient amount of carbohydrates it must then use its protein supplies for energy, a process called gluconeogenesis This, however, results in a lack of necessary protein, and further health difficulties may occur A lack of carbohydrates can also lead to ketosis, a build-
up of ketones in the body that causes fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath
11 What is the main idea of this passage?
A Carbohydrates are needed for good health B Carbohydrates prevent a build-up of proteins
C Carbohydrates can lead to ketosis D Carbohydrates are unnecessary
12 The word "function" as used in paragraph 1 refers to which of the following?
A Neglect B Serve C Dissolve D Profess
13 The word "estimate" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _
A Disbelieve B Declare C Calculate D Wonder
14 According to the passage, what do most nutritionists suggest?
A Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis
B Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose
C Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person's daily diet
D Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities
15 Which of the following do carbohydrates NOT do?
A Preventing ketosis B Causing gluconeogenesis
C Providing energy for the body D Flavoring and sweetening food
16 What does the word "this" in paragraph 2 refer to?
A Using protein supplies for energy B Converting carbohydrates to energy
C Having a deficiency in carbohydrates D Having an insufficient amount of protein
17 According to the passage, which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrates?
A A protein supply B A necessity
C A range of sugars D An energy source
18 The word "lack" in paragraph 2 is most similar to which of the following?
A Plethora B Shortage
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Trang 6C Derivation D Commission
19 Which of the following best describes the author's tone?
A Sensitive B Emotional C Informative D Regretful
20 Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A Cause and result B Comparison and contrast
C Specific to general D Definition and example
by little, as information is gathered throughout the world, we are learning more about early humans
In 1964, Mary and Louis Leakey found a skull in East Africa that was two million years old They had worked for years searching for and studying the remains of early humans In 1972, their son Richard found a skull that was half a million years older than the first one the Leakey had found The skull is similar to a human skull, and people believe this creature was, in some ways, similar
to a modern human In the years 1984 through 1988 a man named Kamoya Kimeu found most of the skull and bones, or skeleton, of an early human Because this is the most complete early human skeleton that has been found, archeologists can learn a lot about the history of human life from it
It is called the Nariokotome skeleton since it was found near the Nariokotome river in Kenya
It is hard to imagine how humans survived the difficult life of those ancient times Humans have little body hair to keep the body warm Animals are much better equipped for cold weather Human skin is thin and can be hurt easily Human teeth and fingernails are not as strong as animal teeth and toenails However, early humans had some advantages over other animals Humans learned to stand
up The fingers on the hand are separated from each other The thumb moves so the hand can hold things and use tools
21 What is the best title for the passage?
A Human remains B Human history study C Human qualities D Human abilities
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Trang 722 How do archeologists learn about early humans?
A They go to rivers and find skulls
B They study all the remains of ancient peoples’ life
C They examine tools and bones
D They tests to find out how old skeletons are
23 How old is the skull found by Richard Leakey?
A 1,500,000 years old B 2,000,000 years old C 2,500,000 years old D 3,000,000 years old
24 From the reading it is true that _
A Earliest humans’ life may have started in East Africa
B Humans could survive the ice age because they were well equipped
C Skeletons of prehistoric humans are many
D Archeologists have found enough evidence of ancient human life
25 What does the word “creature” in line 11 mean?
A A monkey B A person C A fish D A living entity
26 “This” in line 13 refers to _
A skull B bones C skeleton D human body
27 In line 13 mean “complete” is nearest in meaning to _
A full B final C whole D every
28 In which paragraph are human disadvantages over animals discussed?
A Paragraph 1 B Paragraph 2 C Paragraph 3 D Paragraph 4
29 All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _
A Archeologists do not have clear proof of how humans survive
B Archeologists use several methods of studying early humans
C The Leakey family found some of the earliest skulls
D People started to stay in one place as farmers and they could raise animals
30 What is the next paragraph most likely about?
A Early humans lived in caves
B Early humans developed languages
C Early humans could remember things
D Early humans learned to do things that animals could not do
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Trang 8PASSAGE 4: Questions 31-40
The Rise of Teotihuacán The city of Teotihuacán, which lay about 50 kilometers northeast of modern-day Mexico City, began its growth by 200 - 100 B.C At its height, between about A.D 150 and 700, it probably had
a population of more than 125,000 people and covered at least 20 square kilometers [A] It had over 2,000 apartment complexes, a great market, a large number of industrial workshops, an administrative center, a number of massive religious edifices, and a regular grid pattern of streets and buildings [B] Clearly, much planning and central control were involved in the expansion and ordering of this great metropolis [C] Moreover, the city had economic and perhaps religious contacts with most parts of Mesoamerica (modern Central America and Mexico) [D]
How did this tremendous development take place, and why did it happen in the Teotihuacán Valley? Among the main factors are Teotihuacán’s geographic location on a natural trade route to the south and east of the Valley of Mexico, the obsidian resources in the Teotihuacán Valley itself, and the valley’s potential for extensive irrigation The exact role of other factors is much more difficult to pinpoint – for instance, Teotihuacán’s religious significance as a shrine, the historical situation in and around the Valley of Mexico toward the end of the first millennium B.C., the ingenuity and foresightedness of Teotihuacán’s elite, and, finally, the impact of natural disasters, such as the volcanic eruptions of the late first millennium B.C
This last factor is at least circumstantially implicated in Teotihuacán’s rise Prior to 200 B.C., a number of relatively small centers coexisted in and near the Valley of Mexico Around this time, the largest of these centers, Cuicuilco, was seriously affected by a volcanic eruption, with much of its agricultural land covered by lava With Cuicuilco eliminated as a potential rival, any one of a number of relatively modest towns might have emerged as a leading economic and political power
in Central Mexico The archaeological evidence clearly indicates, though, that Teotihuacán was the center that did arise as the predominant force in the area by the first century A.D
It seems likely that Teotihuacán’s natural resources - along with the city elite’s ability to recognize their potential - gave the city a competitive edge over its neighbors The valley, like many other places in Mexican and Guatemalan highlands, was rich in obsidian The hard volcanic stone was
a resource that had been in great demand for many years, at least since the rise of the Olmecs (a people who flourished between 1200 and 400 B.C.), and it apparently had a secure market Moreover, recent research on obsidian tools found at Olmec sites has shown that some of the obsidian obtained by the Olmecs originated near Teotihuacán Teotihuacán obsidian must have been recognized as a valuable commodity for many centuries before the great city arose
Long-distance trade in obsidian probably gave the elite residents of Teotihuacán access to a wide variety of exotic goods, as well as a relatively prosperous life Such success may have attracted immigrants to Teotihuacán In addition, Teotihuacán’s elite may have consciously attempted to attract new inhabitants It is also probable that as early as 200 B.C Teotihuacán may have achieved some religious significance and its shrine (or shrines) may have served as an additional population magnet Finally, the growing population was probably fed by increasing the number and size of irrigated fields
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Trang 9The picture of Teotihuacán that emerges is a classic picture of positive feedback among obsidian mining and working, trade, population growth, irrigation, and religious tourism The thriving obsidian operation, for example, would necessitate more miners, additional manufacturers of obsidian tools, and additional traders to carry the goods to new markets All this led to increased wealth, which in turn would attract more immigrants to Teotihuacán The growing power of the elite, who controlled the economy, would give them the means to physically coerce people to move
to Teotihuacán and serve as additions to the labor force More irrigation works would have to be built to feed the growing population, and this resulted in more power and wealth for the elite
31 The word “massive” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _
A ancient B carefully planned
C very large D carefully protected
32 In paragraph 1, each of the following is mentioned as a feature of the city of Teotihuacán between A.D 150 and 700 EXCEPT _
A regularly arranged streets
B several administrative centers spread across the city
C many manufacturing workshops
D apartment complexes
33 The word “pinpoint” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _
A identify precisely B make an argument C describe D understand
34 The word “ingenuity” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _
A ambition B sincerity C faith D cleverness
35 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a main factor in the
development of Teotihuacán?
A The presence of obsidian in the Teotihuacán Valley
B The potential for extensive irrigation of Teotihuacán Valley lands
C A long period of volcanic inactivity in the Teotihuacán Valley
D Teotihuacán’s location on a natural trade route
36 Which of the following can be inferred from paragraphs 2 and 3 about the volcanic eruptions
of the late first millennium B.C.?
A They were more frequent than historians once thought
B They may have done more damage to Teotihuacán than to neighboring centers
C They may have played a major role in the rise of Teotihuacán
D They increased the need for extensive irrigation in the Teotihuacán Valley
37 What can be inferred from paragraph 3 about Cuicuilco prior to 200 B.C.?
A It was a fairly small city until that date
B It was located outside the Valley of Mexico
C It emerged rapidly as an economic and political center
D Its economy relied heavily on agriculture
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Trang 1038 The word “predominant” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _
A most aggressive B most productive C principal D earliest
39 Which of the following allowed Teotihuacán to have “a competitive edge over its
neighbors”?
A A well-exploited and readily available commodity
B The presence of a highly stable elite class
C Knowledge derived directly from the Olmecs about the art of toolmaking
D Scarce natural resources in nearby areas such as those located in what are now the Guatemalan and Mexican highlands
40 Look at the four letters (marked [A], [B], [C], and [D]) that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage in paragraph 1
“In fact, artifacts and pottery from Teotihuacán have been discovered in sites as far away as the Mayan lowlands, the Guatemalan highlands, northern Mexico, and the Gulf Coast of Mexico.”
Where would the sentence best fit?
A [A] B [B] C [C] D [D]
THIS IS THE END OF THE READING PAPER
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Trang 11PAPER 2: LISTENING (30 minutes) Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English There are two parts in this section with special directions for each part Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work The recording will be played ONCE only
Time allowance: about 30 minutes, including 07 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet
PART 1-Questions 1-8 Track 7
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions There is one question for each announcement or instruction For each question, choose the right answer A, B,
C or D Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen Now, let’s listen to an example On the recording, you will hear:
Woman: Hello This is the travel agency returning your call You left a message about the holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order Let me know if I can help you with any other information Goodbye
On the test book, you will read: Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?
A Breakfast B Lunch C Dinner D All
The correct answer is A Breakfast Now, let’s begin with the first question
1 What type of performance is going to take place?
A A play B A concert C A dance D A game
2 What should listeners do to get more information?
A Phone the governor B Wait for the next update
C Text the radio station D Use the Internet
3 What did the speaker report about the president?
A That he vetoed a traffic plan B That he lowered teachers' salaries
C That he lost money on Wall Street D That he increased education funding
4 What does the speaker suggest listeners do?
A Get more information B Miss connecting flights
C Call customer service D Fly Midwestern Airlines
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Trang 125 What is being advertised?
A A grand opening B New refrigerators
C Zero percent financing D An appliance sale
6 When is this report probably being broadcast?
A Sunday afternoon B On Monday morning
C On Tuesday night D On the weekend
7 When will the special event take place?
A During pregame ceremonies B At dinner time
C At halftime D When the game is finished
8 When should the listeners telephone the NLF?
A Between 5 a.m and 8 p.m pacific time B Between 8 a.m and 9 p.m central time
C Between 8 a.m and 5 p.m eastern time D Between 9 a.m and 4 p.m western time PART 2-Questions 9-20 Track 7
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations The conversations will not be repeated There are four questions for each conversation For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D
Questions 9 to 12 Listen to a conversation between a man and a dog trainer called Jane Fennet
9 In order for a dog to do what you want, _
A it must have a quiet, happy life B it must think you are its leader
C you must give it enough dog biscuits D you must give it less food
10 Why is it bad to let your dog jump all over you when you arrive home?
A Because it will take the dog 5 minutes to calm down
B Because your dog should always look after you
C Because it may bite you
D Because the dog will think that it is your leader
11 A dog that barks and jumps at visitors _
A is trying to make sure you are safe B wants to be taken for a walk
C thinks that you are the boss D thinks you want it to do that
12 If Jane throws a ball for her dog and he doesn't bring it to her, what does she do?
A She goes to pick up the ball herself B She makes the dog bring it to her
C She tests it to see who is in charge D She ignores it
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Trang 13Questions 13 to 16 Listen to an interview with Tania Brown, an expert in consumer affair
13 Tania says that when Rebecca makes her complaint the most important thing is to _
A be sure about what she wants to achieve B focus on getting her money back
C ask the company certain key questions D ask for her money back
14 Tania recommends that Rebecca discuss her plan of action with _
A a friend B her mother
C her teacher D an independent agency
15 Why does Tania recommend making a phone call?
A To know the ways companies deals with complaints
B To find the name of the person responsible
C To make a recording of the company’s response
D To save time
16 What does Tania say about typed versus handwritten letters?
A handwriting is better – as long as it is neat B Typing is preferable
C Both are equally good D They are not as good as phone calls Questions 17 to 20 Listen to a conversation on the phone between Mr Farmer, a company manager and someone from an information technology (IT) company
17 How many employees does Mr Farmer's company have?
A 50 B 30 C 80 D 15
18 Why does his company need a new IT system?
A Because he likes modern things B Because the Internet doesn't work
C Because the printer is old and slow D Because the company is doing very well
19 What is Mr Farmer's main requirement for his company's new IT system?
A It must not break down often B It must not cost a lot of money
C It must store client addresses D It must be small in size
20 How does his company count the time its employees spend at work?
A Using an electronic diary B By writing down the hours worked
C With an automated system D The employees’ time are flexible
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Trang 14PART 3: Questions 21-35 Track 8
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures The talks or lectures will not be repeated There are five questions for each talk or lecture For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen
Questions 21 to 25 Listen to a talk about fear
21 What aspect of fear does the professor mainly discuss?
A Mapping fear in the brain B The things that people fear
C The body’s reactions to fear D Vietnam’s veteran’s problems
22 According to the professor, what are two types of responses the brain has to danger?
A Physical and mental B Rational and innate
C Traumatic and immediate D Memory and fear
23 The professor mentions news on TV to support the point of view that
A People think modern society is safe, but it still has many dangers
B People should not believe what they see on TV news
C The nightly news often depicts society as being dangerous
D Modern society is safe except for what we see on the news
24 Which part of the human body absorbs more blood when the person feels fear?
A Eyes B Muscles C Skin D Spleen
25 What can be inferred about the physical signs of fear and cowardice?
A People who show physical signs of fear are being cowards
B Cowardice is directly related to fear and the signs a person shows
C Physical signs of fear are natural and not a sign of cowardice
D Everyone exhibits physical signs of fear, and not everyone is a coward
Questions 26 to 30 Listen to a talk about history
26 What is the talk mainly about?
A A particular book B The British Empire
C Societal change in London D A famous author
27 According to the professor, where did Stevenson spend the last years of his life?
A Scotland B Denmark C Belgium D Samoa
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Trang 1528 What does the professor imply when he says this “he never actually got around to practicing much law”?
A He couldn’t get the qualifications he needed to be a lawyer
B He was a bad lawyer and had to quit
C He quickly became famous as a lawyer without having to work hard
D He was qualified, but worked very little as a lawyer
29 What does the professor say about The Hulk?
A a derivative of Stevenson's Hyde character B a throw-away draft
C a science fiction character D nothing
30 When was "A Humble Remonstrance" first published?
A 1875 B 1850 C 1878 D 1884
Questions 31 to 35 Listen to a talk about working
31 What is the talk mainly about?
A Difficulties associated with news reporting
B How different types of news agencies arose
C The formation of the Associated Press
D How the telegraph revolutionized the news
32 How did the newspaper business change in the early nineteenth century?
A Employees became involved in the entire process
B Newspaper companies began to hire less-specialized employees
C Newspaper began to require full-time reporters
D Small newspaper companies began to have a completion advantage
33 What was the role of Charles Havas’s company?
A To have different papers work together to gather news
B To translate news stories to be sold in different countries
C To run a telegraph service involved in the sales of news
D To stop the telegraph companies from gaining a monopoly
34 How did the Associated Press come to be?
A Several newspapers decided to work together
B A telegraph company expanded its business
C A translation service began selling international news
D Telegraph companies in the United States formed a monopoly
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Trang 1635 What does the professor imply when he says “One of his employees, Paul Julius Reuter—recognize the name”?
A This man was involved in a news agency he mentioned earlier
B This man has been discussed in previous lectures
C The students have probably studied him in history
D The students probably have not heard of him
THIS IS THE END OF PAPER 2
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Trang 17PRACTICE TEST 2
PAPER 1: READING (60 minutes)
In this section of the test, you will read four different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each question Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet
PASSAGE 1: Questions 1-10
Family questions This week we are celebrating International Women's Day Should women really have their own special day anymore? Haven't they achieved equality? We asked the Jones family from Salisbury what they think Text 1: Mary, mum, 54
Well, I've got far more opportunities than my Mum had at my age I enjoy my job as a teacher - my Mum had to give up work when she got married! - and my husband does a lot more housework than my dad used to do My life's much easier also, of course, because there are so many more labor-saving devices I can remember when we got our first washing machine - and our first fridge But in other ways, I think my life is far more stressful than my parents was - things were simpler for them somehow
Sometimes, I envy the life that Mum had I think it might be rather nice to be at home all day and to have time to bake and to sew clothes for my daughters and myself I sometimes feel that I'm not a 'proper Mum' because I don't make my own bread or jam and haven’t knitted anything since I left school
Text 2: Nigel, dad, 55
I think it might be more appropriate to have a special day for men now Women are the more privileged sex now, I think They have more choices than we do - they can go to work or choose to stay at home if they prefer Of course, some men do choose to be house husbands but most people still find that a bit strange and think that they should be out earning money, hunting and gathering like a 'real man'
I'm not really complaining, of course I'm glad not to have all the financial responsibility for the family as
my own father did The fact that my wife has worked ever since the children were small has also meant that I've taken much more of a role in bringing them up than the traditional father would have done - and
I think I've benefited a lot from that I hope the kids feel they have, too!
Text 3: Molly, daughter, 23
I'm not sure that things are all that good for women now How many women do you see in the top jobs
in politics or business? There are a few but they're certainly the exceptions That's despite the fact that girls tend to do better than boys at school and at university At least, they do in my experience It's still
a man's world and it's very hard for women to break through into that world I work for a bank and none
of the top people at our branch are women - though almost everyone at lower levels is female It's my ambition to be the first woman heading the investment department there and I'm determined to succeed
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Trang 18Text 4: Harriet, daughter, 16
I don't agree that girls do better at school There are both boys and girls who get very good and very bad marks in my class I don't think you can generalize about people on the grounds of their sex Doing well academically is just a question of general ability and both sexes can have that Personality is important too - you have to want to do well and to be prepared to work hard But none of that is a matter of sex
If there are fewer women in top jobs that's because women are more likely to have chosen to put their energies into their families and their friends Women just tend to have different priorities I think that's right I think it's far more worthwhile to devote yourself to your family than to your career I wish Mum hadn't had a job when I was little I know the teaching day is quite short but she always had lots of work
to do after school when I wanted her to play with me
1 Which person thinks girls are more successful academically?
A Mary B Nigel C Molly D Harriet
2 The word ‘privileged’ in text 2 is closest in meaning to _
A advantaged B gorgeous C successful D prepared
3 The word ‘ambition’ in text 3 could be best replaced by _
A invention B goal C revolution D match
4 In text 1, what does the writer mean when he says, “I sometimes feel that I'm not a 'proper Mum”?
A She sometimes feel a bit guilty
B She sometimes act inappropriately
C She sometime has strange feelings
D She feels that she is different from her Mum
5 The word ‘they’ in text 3 refers to _
A parents B teachers C girls D boys
6 Among the four people, who thinks that house work is easier now?
A Mary B Nigel C Molly D Harriet
7 Which text mentions the writer’s opinion towards the men’s role?
A Text 1 B Text 2 C Text 3 D Text 4
8 The word ‘their’ in text 4 refers to _
A men’s B women’s C family’s D friends’
9 Who has a goal to be reached in the future?
A Mary B Nigel C Molly D Harriet
10 In text 4, what best paraphrases the sentence “I don't think you can generalize about people on the grounds of their sex.”
A In general, you can talk about people basing on their sex
B You should think about people in connection with their gender
C It is easy to generalize about people on the grounds of their sex
D You cannot draw conclusion about people just basing on their gender
17
Trang 19PASSAGE 2: Questions 11-20
The Peales were a distinguished family of American artists Charles Willson Peale is best remembered for his portraits of leading figures of the American Revolution He painted portraits of Franklin and Jefferson and over a dozen of George Washington His life-size portrait of his sons Raphaelle and Titian was so realistic that George Washington reportedly once tipped his hat to the figures in the picture Charles Willson Peale gave up painting in his middle age and devoted his life to the Peale Museum, which he founded in Philadelphia It’s the world’s first popular museum of art and natural science which featured paintings by Peale and his family as well as displays of animals in their natural settings Peale found the animals himself and devised a method of taxidermy to make the exhibits more lifelike The museum’s most popular display was the skeleton of a mastodon - a huge, extinct elephant - which Peale unearthed on a New York farm in 1801
Three of Peale’s seventeen children were also famous artists Raphaelle Peale often painted still lifes of flowers, fruit, and cheese His works show the same luminosity and attention to detail that the works of the Dutch masters show In the late eighteenth century, however, still lifes were not the fashion Portraiture was the rage, and so Raphaelle Peale found few buyers for his still lifes at the time His brother Rembrandt studied under his father and painted portraits of many noted people, including one of George Washington Another brother, Rubens Peale, painted mostly landscapes and portraits
James Peale, the brother of Charles Willson Peale, specialized in miniatures His daughter Sarah Miriam Peale was probably the first professional female portrait painter in America
11 What is the main topic of the passage?
A The life of Charles Willson Peale B Portraiture in the eighteenth century
C The Peale Museum D A family of artists
12 The word “He” in paragraph 1 refers to _
A Charles Willson Peale B Franklin C Jefferson D George Washington
13 The author probably mentions that Washington “tipped his hat to the figures in the picture” (paragraph 1) to indicate that _
A Charles Willson Peale’s painting was very lifelike
B Washington respected Charles Willson Peale’s work
C Washington was friendly with Raphaelle and Titian Peale
D the painting of the two brothers was extremely large
14 The word “displays” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _
A museums B paintings C exhibits D portraits
15 For which of the following terms does the author give a definition in the second paragraph?
A Natural science B Skeleton C Taxidermy D Mastodon
16 Which of the following questions about the Peale Museum does the passage NOT supply enough information to answer?
18
Trang 20A Who found and prepared its animal exhibits?
B In what city was it located?
C Where did its most popular exhibit come from?
D In what year was it founded?
17 The word “unearthed” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _
A displayed B dug up C located D looked over
18 The word “rage” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _
A fashion B portrait C luminosity D still lifes
19 According to the passage, Rembrandt Peale and his father both painted _
A miniatures B portraits of George Washington
C paintings of flowers, fruit, and cheese D pictures of animals
20 Which of the following is NOT one of the children of Charles Willson Peale?
A Titian Peale B Rubens Peale C Raphaelle Peale D Sarah Miriam Peale
PASSAGE 3: Questions 21-30
The technology of the North American colonies did not differ strikingly from that of Europe, but in one respect, the colonists enjoyed a great advantage Especially by comparison with Britain, Americans had
a wonderfully plentiful supply of wood
The first colonists did not, as many people imagine, find an entire continent covered by a climax forest Even along the Atlantic seaboard, the forest was broken at many points Nevertheless, all sorts of fine trees abounded, and through the early colonial period, those who pushed westward encountered new forests By the end of the colonial era, the price of wood had risen slightly in eastern cities, but wood was still extremely abundant
The availability of wood brought advantages that have seldom been appreciated Wood was a foundation
of the economy Houses and all manner of buildings were made of wood to a degree unknown in Britain Secondly, wood was used as fuel for heating and cooking Thirdly, it was used as the source of important industrial compounds, such as potash, an industrial alkali; charcoal, a component of gunpowder; and tannic acid, used for tanning leather
The supply of wood conferred advantages but had some negative aspects as well Iron at that time was produced by heating iron ore with charcoal Because Britain was so stripped of trees, she was unable to exploit her rich iron mines But the American colonies had both iron ore and wood; iron production was encouraged and became successful However, when Britain abandoned the charcoal method and went
on to develop coke smelting, the Colonies did not follow suit because they had plenty of wood and besides, charcoal iron was stronger than coke iron Coke smelting led to technologic innovations and was linked to the emergence of the Industrial Revolution In the early nineteenth century, the former colonies lagged behind Britain in industrial development because their supply of wood led them to cling
to charcoal iron
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Trang 2121 What does the passage mainly discuss?
A The advantages of using wood in the colonies
B The effects of an abundance of wood on the colonies
C The roots of the Industrial Revolution
D The difference between charcoal iron and coke iron
22 The word “strikingly” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _
A realistically B dramatically C completely D immediately
23 Which of the following is a common assumption about the forests of North America during the colonial period?
A They contained only a few types of trees B They existed only along the Atlantic seaboard
C They had little or no economic value D They covered the entire continent
24 The word “plentiful” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _
A abundant B early C entire D colonial
25 According to the passage, by the end of the colonial period, the price of wood in eastern cities
A rose quickly because wood was becoming so scarce
B was much higher than it was in Britain
C was slightly higher than in previous years
D decreased rapidly because of lower demand for wood
26 What can be inferred about houses in Britain during the period written about in the passage?
A They were more expensive than American houses
B They were generally built with imported materials
C They were typically smaller than homes in North America
D They were usually built from materials other than wood
27 Why does the author mention “gunpowder” in paragraph 3?
A To illustrate the negative aspects of some industrial processes
B To give an example of a product made with wood compounds
C To remind readers that the colonial era ended in warfare
D To suggest that wood was not the only important product of the colonies
28 The phrase “follow suit” in paragraph 4 means _
A do the same thing B make an attempt C have the opportunity D take a risk
29 According to the passage, why was the use of coke smelting advantageous?
A It led to advances in technology
B It was less expensive than wood smelting
C It produced a stronger type of iron than wood smelting
D It stimulated the demand for wood
30 Which of the following words or phrases is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the phrase
“cling to” in paragraph 4?
A abandoned B flow suit C lead to D link to
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Trang 22PASSAGE 4: Questions 31-40
Ethological theory began to be applied to research on children in the 1960’s but has become even more influential today The origins of ethology can be traced to the work of Darwin Its modern foundations were laid by two European zoologists, Konrad Lorenz and Niko Tinbergen
Watching the behaviors diverse animal species in their natural habitats, Lorenz, and Tinbergen observed behavior patterns that promote survival The most well-known of these is imprinting, the carly following behavior of certain baby birds that ensures that the young will stay close to their mother and be fed and protected from danger Imprinting takes place during an early, restricted time period of development If the mother goose is not present during this time, but an object resembling her in important features is, young goslings may imprint on it instead
Observations of imprinting led to major concept that has been applied in child Development” the critical period It refers to a limited time span during which the child is biologically prepared to acquire certain adaptive behaviors but needs the support of suitably stimulating environment Many researchers have conducted studies to find out whether complex cognitive and social behaviors must be learned during restricted time periods for example, if children are deprived of adequate food or physical and social stimulation during the early years of life, will their intelligence be permanently impaired? If language is not mastered during the preschool years, is the child’s capacity to acquire it reduced?
Inspired by observations of imprinting, in 1969 the British psychoanalyst John Bowlby applied ethological theory to the understanding of the relationship between an infant and its parents He argued that attachment behaviors of babies, such as smiling, babbling, grasping, and crying, are built-in social signals that encourage the parents to approach, care for, and interact with the baby By keeping a parent near, these behaviors help ensure that the baby will be fed, protected from danger, and provided with the stimulation and affection necessary for healthy growth The development of attachment in human infants
is a lengthy process involving changes in psychological structures that lead to a deep affectional tie between parent and baby
31 What was Darwin’s contribution to ethology?
A Darwin improved on the original principles of ethology
B Darwin was the professor who taught Lorenz and Tinbergen
C Darwin’s work provided the basis for ethology
D Darwin was the first person to apply ethological theory to children
32 The word “diverse” is closest in meaning to _
A small B varied C wild D particular
33 The word “ensures” is closest in meaning to _
A guarantees B proves C teaches D assumes
34 According to the passage, if a mother goose is not present during the time period when imprinting takes place, which of the following will most likely occur?
A The gosling will not imprint on any object B The gosling may not find a mate when it
matures
C The mother will later imprint on the gosling D The gosling may imprint on another object
21
Trang 2335 The word “it” refers to _
A development B goose C time D object
36 The word “suitably” is closest in meaning to _
A willingly B moderately C appropriately D emotionally
37 The author mentions all of the following as attachment behaviors of human infants EXCEPT _
A grasping B crying C eating D smiling
38 According to the passage, attachment behaviors of infants are intended to _
A get the physical, emotional and social needs of the infant met
B allow the infant to become imprinted on objects that resemble the parent
C provide the infant with a means of self-stimulation
D prepare the infant to cope with separation
39 The phrase “affectional tie” is closest in meaning to _
A cognitive development B emotional attachment
C psychological need D behavioral change
40 It can be inferred from the passage that ethological theory assumes that _
A to learn about human behavior only human subjects should be studied
B failure to imprint has no influence on intelligence
C the notion of critical periods applies only to animals
D there are similarities between animal and human behavior
THIS IS THE END OF PAPER 1
22
Trang 24PAPER 2: LISTENING (35 minutes) Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English There are three parts in this section with special directions for each part Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work The recording will be played ONCE only
At the end of the test, you will be given seven minutes to transfer your answers to an answer sheet
PART 1: Questions 1-8 Track 9
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions There is one question for each announcement or instruction For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen Now, let’s listen to an example On the recording, you might hear:
Woman: Hello This is the travel agency returning your call You left a message about the holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order Let me know if I can help you with any other information Goodbye
On the test book, you will read: Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?
A Breakfast B Lunch C Dinner D All The correct answer is A “Breakfast.”
1 Why is Sam’s disco special tonight?
A It's the last week of the course B It's Sam's birthday
C It starts earlier than usual D Sam provides half price all night
2 Where will the football match take place?
A At Henry's College B At the sports centre
C In a park D In the beach
3 When will the train to Thorton leave?
A At 12:15 B At 12:45 C At 1:00 D At 1:20
4 What should the students bring to the picnic?
A Chicken B Drinks C Bread rolls D Glasses
5 What was Louis’s first job?
A Secretary B Designer C Bank clerk D Travel agent
23
Trang 256 What time does the Visitors’ Center open?
A 8 a.m - 7 p.m everyday B 9 a.m – 5.30 p.m Tuesday - Sunday
C 9 a.m – 5.30 p.m everyday D 10 a.m – 5.00 p.m Wednesday - Sunday
7 What is the speed limit inside the park?
A 15 miles/ hour B 20 miles/ hour C 25 miles/ hour D No speed limit
8 Which activity is not allowed on the lake?
A Swimming B Fishing C Camping D Rowing
PART 2: Questions 9 - 20 Track 10
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations The conversations will not be repeated There are four questions for each conversation For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D Questions 9 to 12 Listen to a conversation between a girl, Mary, and her father about computers
9 How long has Mary been able to use computer?
A Since she was four years old B Since she was in grade 4
C Since she was at high school D Since she entered Social Study class
10 According to Mary, what is the best way to understand the instructions for the computer?
A Learn them when you are young B Read them carefully
C Sit down and use the computer D Go to a computer class
11 What is Mary’s father probably going to do?
A Finish his piece of work B Go to Mary’s class
C Get away at weekend D Register for a computer class
12 It can be learnt from the conversation that _
A Marry is teaching at a school B Mary’s major is computer science
C Marry is taking a Social Study course D Mary has written a report about using computers
24
Trang 26Questions 13 to 16 Listen to a conversation between a girl, Charlotte, and her father about what she is going to study next year
13 Why does Charlotte want to study Spanish?
A Because it’s an important world language B Because its grammar is easy
C Because she speaks French fluently D Because she wants to work in Spain
14 Who used to live in St Petersburg?
A Charlotte B Charlotte’s parents
C Charlotte’s grandparents D Charlotte’s great grandparents
15 What does Charlotte’s father think of Chinese language?
A It’s a fantastic language B It’s useful for his business
C It’s boring D It’s difficult to learn
16 How many students will join a Chinese language course?
A 6 B About 20 C About 30 D Thousands
Questions 17 to 20 Listen to a conversation between a boy, Jack, and a girl, Sarah, about
learning to drive
17 What doesn’t Jack like about the teacher?
A He doesn’t teach Jack to stop B He explains things too fast
C He seems unfriendly D He wants Jack to do many things
18 What parking problem does Jack have?
A He cannot stop B He cannot stop quickly enough
C He stops too slowly D He has only three times to stop
19 Why don’t Jack parents take him out to practice?
A They are worried about their car B They have bought a car for Jack
C They think Jack has enough practice D They think Sarah will help Jack
20 When will Sarah and Jack meet again?
A Sunday at one B Sunday at two C Sunday at three D Sunday at four
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Trang 27PART 3: Questions 21-35 Track 11
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures The talks or lectures will not be repeated There are five questions for each talk or lecture For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or
D Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen
Questions 21 to 25 Listen to a talk about car inventions
21 What does the speaker say about the car invention?
A It was invented by a Greek man
B It was first built by a French engineer
C It was first developed in the United States
D It’s hard to say exactly when the car originated
22 Where does the word “car” come from?
A An English word B A Greek word C A Latin word D A French word
23 What did Robert Anderson build in about 1839 in Scotland?
A The first electric-powered road vehicle B Electric taxis
C Electric bicycles D Electric batteries
24 Why didn’t the electric taxis in the late 1800s last long?
A Because they caused many accidents B Because of their problematic batteries
C Because they were too expensive to run D Because they were heavy and unreliable
25 What were the first real automobiles like?
A Modern trucks B Long motorbikes
C Large bicycles D Motorized versions of horse-drawn vehicles Questions 26 to 30 Listen to a lecture about the Red Cross organization
26 Who was Jean Henri Dunant?
A A doctor from Italy B A businessman from Italy
C A doctor from Switzerland D A businessman from Switzerland
27 Who did Jean Henri Dunant help in the battle in Italy in 1958?
A Poor villagers B His colleagues
C Wounded soldiers D The Red Cross workers
28 When was the First Geneva Convention organized?
A In 1864 B In 1964 C In 1859 D In 1854
26
Trang 2829 Who can receive helps from The Red Cross?
A People living in remote areas B People suffered from traffic accidents
C People living in draught areas D People caught up in famine and war
30 What do people tend to associate a red cross with?
A Famine B War
C Hospitals and medical treatment D First aid
Questions 31 to 35 Listen to a lecture about happiness
31 According to the man, when asked about what they need to be happy, many people answered _
A Winning the lottery B Having more money
C Being stronger D Living longer
32 What topic is the speaker mainly discussing?
A The psychology of happiness B The happiness of modern life
C How money makes people happy D How to do research on happiness
33 What did the researchers first ask the people?
A When they were unhappy B How their weight affected their happiness
C How happy they felt D How much money they needed to be happy
34 How many factors have the researchers found are very important for achieving happiness?
35 What do happy people think more about?
A The jobs they are doing B The houses they want to buy
C The things they are satisfied with D The changes they want to make
THIS IS THE END OF PAPER 2
27
Trang 29PRACTICE TEST 3 PAPER 1: READING (60 minutes)
In this section of the test, you will read four different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each question Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet PASSAGE 1: Questions 1-10
Family questions How old is old? As rite government talks about raising the age of retirement from 60 or 65 to 70, we thought it would be interesting to ask people of different age groups what they felt about getting older
Text 1: Auntie Kitty, 87
People often tell me that I don't look a day over 70 But in my mind, I feel about 30 still Unfortunately, my body often reminds me that I'm a bit older than that The best age for me was about 50 My children were safely grown
up, so I could relax a bit and not worry so much about money or looking after them My first grandchild was born when I was 51 and that was fantastic I suppose I was lucky that I had my own children early so that l could really enjoy my grandchildren and still had enough energy to help a lot with them I'm a great-grandmother now
So I'm really lucky I don't worry about the future now though I used to all through the rest of my life You never know what life is going to bring you so there's no point in worrying about things that just might happen I wish I'd realised that 60 years ago!
Text 2: Bob, Dad
Well, now that I'm the other side of 50 60 certainly doesn't seem as old as it used to when I was a kid ln general,
I think that age is in the mind There are some young people who seem to have always been middle-aged And some people in their 60s who behave like teenagers I don't think your character changes just because you reach
a certain age The problem is, of course, that your body does change, so people do see you as the age you are I feel about 28 still - that was an age I really enjoyed and I don't feel I've changed much since then But people look at me and see grey hair and a paunch and they ask me if I have any grandchildren That always really takes
me by surprise though it shouldn 't really, I suppose
Text 3: Cherry, Mom
I think I've always felt that the age just ahead of me is old I remember once saying, when I was 15, to a woman
on her 25th birthday that she was already halfway to 50 I couldn't understand then why she was so cross with
me I do now! When I was 15, I thought that 25 was inconceivably old but when I got there it didn't seem old at all It's because you're not ageing on your own, your friends are all growing old in the same way Everything's relative, of course That's the way survival works You never really think that you are old You know you're on your way but you never quite get there A lot of our children's friends have parents who are a lot younger than
us but there are quite a few of our age too But I still feel the same age as the 30-year-old mums of my children's friends, even though I could just about be their mother!
Text 4: Emma, 13
The oldest person I know is my dad's Auntie Jane She's 89 or something like that, I think She's less active than we are She doesn't go to school or work or anything like that I wouldn't like to be her age You can't think about the future, only the past I think that you are old when you get to 60 My mum and dad seem kind of old I suppose they're middle-aged I think people should be able to stop working when they're 55 Otherwise, you're working all your life and that seems an incredible waste of time You need to be able to enjoy life and travel and things before you get too old to do it all It's quite nice being a teenager but I think it'll be better to be in my 20s Then I can have my own flat and stay out as long as I want and wear whatever I want
1 Which person looks younger than s/he is?
A Kitty B Bob C Cherry D Emma
2 The word ‘behave’ in text 2 is closest in meaning to _
A being strange B act C play D prepare
3 The word ‘relative’ in text 3 could be best replaced by _
A contrast B same C relation D comparative
4 In text 2, what does the writer mean when he says, “I feel about 28 still”?
A He feels that he is 28 years younger B He looks younger than when he is 28
C He behaves like a young man D He thinks he is still young and strong
28
Trang 305 In text 3, ‘who’ refers to _
A his friends B his children
C his children’s friends D his children’s friends’ parents
6 Among the four people, whose life is easier now in some ways than it used to be?
A Kitty B Bob C Cherry D Emma
7 Which text mentions the opinion that people never think that they themselves are old?
A Text 1 B Text 2 C Text 3 D Text 4
8 In text 3, ‘it’ refers to _
A 15 B 25 C 30 D 50
9 Who is looking forward to being a bit older than s/he is now?
A Kitty B Bob C Cherry D Emma
10 In text 3, what best paraphrases the sentence “I couldn't understand then why she was so cross with me.”
A I couldn't understand why she ignored me B I didn’t know why she was angry with me
C I couldn't comprehend her cross D I couldn't realised her signal
PASSAGE 2: Questions 11-20
Comprehensive lifestyle changes including a better diet and more exercise can lead not only to a better physique, but also to swift and dramatic changes at the genetic level, U.S researchers said on Monday In a small study, the researchers tracked 30 men with low-risk prostate cancer who decided against conventional medical treatment such
as surgery and radiation or hormone therapy The men underwent three months of major lifestyle changes, including eating a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, legumes and soy products, moderate exercise such as walking for half an hour a day, and an hour of daily stress management methods such as meditation As expected, they lost weight, lowered their blood pressure and saw other health improvements But the researchers found more profound changes when they compared prostate biopsies taken before and after the lifestyle changes After the three months, the men had changes in activity in about 500 genes - including 48 that were turned on and 453 genes that were turned off The activity of disease-preventing genes increased while a number of disease-promoting genes, including those involved in prostate cancer and breast cancer, shut down, according to the study published in the journal Proceedings
of the NAS
The research was led by Dr Dean Ornish, head of the Preventive Medicine Research Institute in Sausalito, California, and a well-known author advocating lifestyle changes to improve health “It’s an exciting finding because so often people say, ‘Oh, it's all in my genes, what can I do?' Well, it turns out you may be able to do
a lot," Ornish, who is also affiliated with the University of California, San Francisco, said in a telephone interview “In just three months, I can change hundreds of my genes simply by changing what I eat and how I live? That's pretty exciting," Ornish said "The implications of our study are not limited to men with prostate cancer."
11 What does the passage mainly discuss?
A A healthy lifestyle can better alter our genes B A healthy lifestyle is good for the environment
C A healthy lifestyle can treated prostate cancer D Our genes are not affected by our lifestyle
12 According to the passage, which statement is true about the men participating in the study?
A They were radiated to control the cancer B They were diagnosed for high-risk prostate cancer
C They were operated to beat the cancer D They were treated by a method against ordinary ones
13 According to the passage, how many lifestyle changes did the men undergo?
A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5
14 The word “moderate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A strong B fast C gentle D adequate
15 Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a result of the study?
A The men’s health was improved B The men’s weight came off
C The men were in low spirits D The men had changes in gene activity
16 The word “profound” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A dramatic B swift C slow D moderate
17 According to passage, how many genes changed as a result of the healthy lifestyle?
A 48 B 453 C 30 D 500
18 According to the passage, what happened to disease-causing genes?
A Their activity was expanded B There was no change in their activity
C Their activity was lessened D They were turned on
29