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Tiêu đề 10th International Mathematical Competition for University Students Cluj-Napoca, July 2003 Day 1
Trường học Babeș-Bolyai University
Chuyên ngành Mathematics
Thể loại Đề thi
Năm xuất bản 2003
Thành phố Cluj-Napoca
Định dạng
Số trang 8
Dung lượng 169,12 KB

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Prove that the sequence an 3 2 n−1 has a finite limit or tends to infinity.. Then an+1> 32an is equivalent to bn+1> bn, thus the sequence bn is strictly increasing.. Each increasing sequ

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10 International Mathematical Competition for University Students

Cluj-Napoca, July 2003

Day 1

1 (a) Let a1, a2, be a sequence of real numbers such that a1 = 1 and an+1> 3

2an for all n Prove that the sequence

an

3 2

n−1

has a finite limit or tends to infinity (10 points)

(b) Prove that for all α > 1 there exists a sequence a1, a2, with the same properties such that

lim an

3 2

n−1 = α

(10 points)

Solution (a) Let bn= an

3 2

n−1 Then an+1> 32an is equivalent to bn+1> bn, thus the sequence

(bn) is strictly increasing Each increasing sequence has a finite limit or tends to infinity

(b) For all α > 1 there exists a sequence 1 = b1< b2 < which converges to α Choosing

an= 32n−1bn, we obtain the required sequence (an)

2 Let a1, a2 , a51be non-zero elements of a field We simultaneously replace each element with the sum of the 50 remaining ones In this way we get a sequence b1 , b51 If this new sequence is

a permutation of the original one, what can be the characteristic of the field? (The characteristic

of a field is p, if p is the smallest positive integer such that x + x + + x

p

= 0 for any element x

of the field If there exists no such p, the characteristic is 0.) (20 points)

Solution Let S = a1+ a2+ · · · + a51 Then b1+ b2+ · · · + b51 = 50S Since b1, b2, · · · , b51 is a permutation of a1, a2, · · · , a51, we get 50S = S, so 49S = 0 Assume that the characteristic of the field is not equal to 7 Then 49S = 0 implies that S = 0 Therefore bi = −ai for i = 1, 2, · · · , 51

On the other hand, bi= aϕ(i), where ϕ ∈ S51 Therefore, if the characteristic is not 2, the sequence

a1, a2, · · · , a51can be partitioned into pairs {ai, aϕ(i)} of additive inverses But this is impossible, since 51 is an odd number It follows that the characteristic of the field is 7 or 2

The characteristic can be either 2 or 7 For the case of 7, x1 = = x51 = 1 is a possible choice For the case of 2, any elements can be chosen such that S = 0, since then bi= −ai= ai

3 Let A be an n × n real matrix such that 3A3= A2+ A + I (I is the identity matrix) Show that the sequence Ak converges to an idempotent matrix (A matrix B is called idempotent if

B2= B.) (20 points)

Solution The minimal polynomial of A is a divisor of 3x3− x2− x − 1 This polynomial has three different roots This implies that A is diagonalizable: A = C−1DC where D is a diagonal matrix The eigenvalues of the matrices A and D are all roots of polynomial 3x3− x2− x − 1 One of the three roots is 1, the remaining two roots have smaller absolute value than 1 Hence, the diagonal elements of Dk, which are the kth powers of the eigenvalues, tend to either 0 or 1 and the limit

M = lim Dk is idempotent Then lim Ak= C−1M C is idempotent as well

4 Determine the set of all pairs (a, b) of positive integers for which the set of positive integers can be decomposed into two sets A and B such that a · A = b · B (20 points)

Solution Clearly a and b must be different since A and B are disjoint

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10th International Mathematical Competition for University Students

Cluj-Napoca, July 2003

Day 2

1 Let A and B be n × n real matrices such that AB + A + B = 0 Prove that AB = BA Solution Since (A + I)(B + I) = AB + A + B + I = I (I is the identity matrix), matrices

A + I and B + I are inverses of each other Then (A + I)(B + I) = (B + I)(A + I) and

AB + BA.

2 Evaluate the limit

lim x→0+

Z 2x

x

sinmt

tn dt (m, n ∈ N).

Solution We use the fact that sin t

t is decreasing in the interval (0, π) and limt→0+0

sin t

t = 1. For all x ∈ (0,π2) and t ∈ [x, 2x] we have sin 2x

2 x <

sin t

t < 1, thus

 sin 2x 2x

mZ 2x

x

tm

tn <

Z 2x

x

sinmt

tn dt <

Z 2x

x

tm

tndt,

Z 2x

x

tm

tndt = xm−n+1

Z 2

1

um−ndu.

The factor  sin 2x

2x

m tends to 1 If m − n + 1 < 0, the limit of xm−n+1 is infinity; if

m − n + 1 > 0 then 0 If m − n + 1 = 0 then xm−n+1R2

1 um−ndu = ln 2 Hence,

lim x→0+0

2x Z

x

sinmt

tn dt =

ln 2, n − m = 1 +∞, n − m > 1.

.

3 Let A be a closed subset of Rn and let B be the set of all those points b ∈ Rn for which there exists exactly one point a0 ∈ A such that

|a0− b| = inf

a∈A|a − b|.

Prove that B is dense in Rn; that is, the closure of B is Rn.

Solution Let b0 ∈ A (otherwise b / 0 ∈ A ⊂ B), % = inf

a∈A|a − b0| The intersection of the ball

of radius % + 1 with centre b0 with set A is compact and there exists a0 ∈ A: |a0− b0| = %.

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Denote by Br(a) = {x ∈ Rn : |x − a| ≤ r} and ∂Br(a) = {x ∈ Rn : |x − a| = r} the ball and the sphere of center a and radius r, respectively.

If a0 is not the unique nearest point then for any point a on the open line segment (a0, b0)

we have B|a−a 0 |(a) ⊂ B%(b0) and ∂B|a−a 0 |(a) T

∂B%(b0) = {a0}, therefore (a0, b0) ⊂ B and

b0 is an accumulation point of set B.

4 Find all positive integers n for which there exists a family F of three-element subsets

of S = {1, 2, , n} satisfying the following two conditions:

(i) for any two different elements a, b ∈ S, there exists exactly one A ∈ F containing both a, b;

(ii) if a, b, c, x, y, z are elements of S such that if {a, b, x}, {a, c, y}, {b, c, z} ∈ F , then {x, y, z} ∈ F

Solution The condition (i) of the problem allows us to define a (well-defined) operation

∗ on the set S given by

a ∗ b = c if and only if {a, b, c} ∈ F, where a 6= b.

We note that this operation is still not defined completely (we need to define a ∗ a), but nevertheless let us investigate its features At first, due to (i), for a 6= b the operation obviously satisfies the following three conditions:

(a) a 6= a ∗ b 6= b;

(b) a ∗ b = b ∗ a;

(c) a ∗ (a ∗ b) = b.

What does the condition (ii) give? It claims that

(e’) x ∗ (a ∗ c) = x ∗ y = z = b ∗ c = (x ∗ a) ∗ c

for any three different x, a, c, i.e that the operation is associative if the arguments are different Now we can complete the definition of ∗ In order to save associativity for non-different arguments, i.e to make b = a ∗ (a ∗ b) = (a ∗ a) ∗ b hold, we will add to S an extra element, call it 0, and define

(d) a ∗ a = 0 and a ∗ 0 = 0 ∗ a = a.

Now it is easy to check that, for any a, b, c ∈ S ∪ {0}, (a),(b),(c) and (d), still hold, and (e) a ∗ b ∗ c := (a ∗ b) ∗ c = a ∗ (b ∗ c).

We have thus obtained that (S ∪ {0}, ∗) has the structure of a finite Abelian group, whose elements are all of order two Since the order of every such group is a power of 2,

we conclude that |S ∪ {0}| = n + 1 = 2m and n = 2m− 1 for some integer m ≥ 1.

Given n = 2m−1, according to what we have proven till now, we will construct a family

of three-element subsets of S satisfying (i) and (ii) Let us define the operation ∗ in the following manner:

if a = a0 + 2a1 + + 2m−1am−1 and b = b0+ 2b1 + + 2m−1bm−1, where ai, bi are either 0 or 1, we put a ∗ b = |a0− b0| + 2|a1− b1| + + 2m−1|am−1− bm−1|.

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It is simple to check that this ∗ satisfies (a),(b),(c) and (e’) Therefore, if we include in

F all possible triples a, b, a ∗ b, the condition (i) follows from (a),(b) and (c), whereas the condition (ii) follows from (e’)

The answer is: n = 2m− 1.

5 (a) Show that for each function f : Q × Q → R there exists a function g : Q → R such that f (x, y) ≤ g(x) + g(y) for all x, y ∈ Q.

(b) Find a function f : R × R → R for which there is no function g : R → R such that

f (x, y) ≤ g(x) + g(y) for all x, y ∈ R.

Solution a) Let ϕ : Q → N be a bijection Define g(x) = max{|f (s, t)| : s, t ∈ Q, ϕ(s) ≤ ϕ(x), ϕ(t) ≤ ϕ(x)} We have f (x, y) ≤ max{g(x), g(y)} ≤ g(x) + g(y).

b) We shall show that the function defined by f (x, y) = |x−y|1 for x 6= y and f (x, x) = 0 satisfies the problem If, by contradiction there exists a function g as above, it results, that g(y) ≥ |x−y|1 − f (x) for x, y ∈ R, x 6= y; one obtains that for each x ∈ R, lim

y→xg(y) = ∞.

We show, that there exists no function g having an infinite limit at each point of a bounded and closed interval [a, b].

For each k ∈ N+ denote Ak = {x ∈ [a, b] : |g(x)| ≤ k}.

We have obviously [a, b] = ∪∞k=1Ak The set [a, b] is uncountable, so at least one of the sets Ak is infinite (in fact uncountable) This set Ak being infinite, there exists a sequence

in Ak having distinct terms This sequence will contain a convergent subsequence (xn)n∈N convergent to a point x ∈ [a, b] But lim

y→xg(y) = ∞ implies that g(xn) → ∞, a contradiction because |g(xn)| ≤ k, ∀n ∈ N.

Second solution for part (b) Let S be the set of all sequences of real numbers The cardinality of S is |S| = |R|ℵ0 = 2ℵ2 = 2ℵ0 = |R| Thus, there exists a bijection h : R → S Now define the function f in the following way For any real x and positive integer n, let f (x, n) be the nth element of sequence h(x) If y is not a positive integer then let

f (x, y) = 0 We prove that this function has the required property.

Let g be an arbitrary R → R function We show that there exist real numbers x, y such that f (x, y) > g(x) + g(y) Consider the sequence (n + g(n))∞n=1 This sequence is an element of S, thus (n + g(n))∞n=1= h(x) for a certain real x Then for an arbitrary positive integer n, f (x, n) is the nth element, f (x, n) = n + g(n) Choosing n such that n > g(x),

we obtain f (x, n) = n + g(n) > g(x) + g(n).

6 Let (an)n∈N be the sequence defined by

a0 = 1, an+1 = 1

n + 1

n X

k=0

ak

n − k + 2 . Find the limit

lim n→∞

n X

k=0

ak

2k,

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if it exists.

Solution Consider the generating function f (x) = P∞

n=0anxn By induction 0 < an ≤ 1, thus this series is absolutely convergent for |x| < 1, f (0) = 1 and the function is positive

in the interval [0, 1) The goal is to compute f (12).

By the recurrence formula,

f0(x) =

∞ X

n=0 (n + 1)an+1xn=

∞ X

n=0

n X

k=0

ak

n − k + 2 x

n

=

=

∞ X

k=0

akxk

∞ X

n=k

xn−k

n − k + 2 = f (x)

∞ X

m=0

xm

m + 2 . Then

ln f (x) = ln f (x) − ln f (0) =

Z x

0

f0

f =

∞ X

m=0

xm+1 (m + 1)(m + 2) =

=

X

m=0



xm+1

(m + 1) − x

m+1 (m + 2)



= 1 +



1 − 1 x

X

m=0

xm+1 (m + 1) = 1 +



1 − 1 x



ln 1

1 − x ,

ln f  1 2



= 1 − ln 2,

and thus f ( 1

2 ) =

e

2 .

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Let {a, b} be a solution and consider the sets A, B such that a · A = b · B Denoting d = (a, b) the greatest common divisor of a and b, we have a = d·a1, b = d·b1, (a1, b1) = 1 and a1·A = b1·B Thus {a1, b1} is a solution and it is enough to determine the solutions {a, b} with (a, b) = 1

If 1 ∈ A then a ∈ a · A = b · B, thus b must be a divisor of a Similarly, if 1 ∈ B, then a is a divisor of b Therefore, in all solutions, one of numbers a, b is a divisor of the other one

Now we prove that if n ≥ 2, then (1, n) is a solution For each positive integer k, let f (k)

be the largest non-negative integer for which nf (k)|k Then let A = {k : f (k) is odd} and

B = {k : f (k) is even} This is a decomposition of all positive integers such that A = n · B

5 Let g : [0, 1] → R be a continuous function and let fn : [0, 1] → R be a sequence of functions defined by f0(x) = g(x) and

fn+1(x) = 1

x

Z x 0

fn(t)dt (x ∈ (0, 1], n = 0, 1, 2, )

Determine lim

n→∞fn(x) for every x ∈ (0, 1] (20 points)

B We shall prove in two different ways that limn→∞fn(x) = g(0) for every x ∈ (0, 1] (The second one is more lengthy but it tells us how to calculate fn directly from g.)

Proof I First we prove our claim for non-decreasing g In this case, by induction, one can easily see that

1 each fn is non-decrasing as well, and

2 g(x) = f0(x) ≥ f1(x) ≥ f2(x) ≥ ≥ g(0) (x ∈ (0, 1])

Then (2) implies that there exists

h(x) = lim

n→∞fn(x) (x ∈ (0, 1])

Clearly h is non-decreasing and g(0) ≤ h(x) ≤ fn(x) for any x ∈ (0, 1], n = 0, 1, 2, Therefore

to show that h(x) = g(0) for any x ∈ (0, 1], it is enough to prove that h(1) cannot be greater than g(0)

Suppose that h(1) > g(0) Then there exists a 0 < δ < 1 such that h(1) > g(δ) Using the definition, (2) and (1) we get

fn+1(1) =

Z 1 0

fn(t)dt ≤

Z δ 0

g(t)dt +

Z 1 δ

fn(t)dt ≤ δg(δ) + (1 − δ)fn(1)

Hence

fn(1) − fn+1(1) ≥ δ(fn(1) − g(δ)) ≥ δ(h(1) − g(δ)) > 0,

so fn(1) → −∞, which is a contradiction

Similarly, we can prove our claim for non-increasing continuous functions as well

Now suppose that g is an arbitrary continuous function on [0, 1] Let

M (x) = sup

t∈[0,x]

g(t), m(x) = inf

t∈[0,x]g(t) (x ∈ [0, 1]) Then on [0, 1] m is non-increasing, M is non-decreasing, both are continuous, m(x) ≤ g(x) ≤ M (x) and M (0) = m(0) = g(0) Define the sequences of functions Mn(x) and mn(x) in the same way

as fn is defined but starting with M0= M and m0= m

Then one can easily see by induction that mn(x) ≤ fn(x) ≤ Mn(x) By the first part of the proof, limnmn(x) = m(0) = g(0) = M (0) = limnMn(x) for any x ∈ (0, 1] Therefore we must have limnfn(x) = g(0)

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Proof II To make the notation clearer we shall denote the variable of fj by xj By definition (and Fubini theorem) we get that

fn+1(xn+1) = 1

xn+1

Z x n+1

0

1

xn

Z x n

0

1

xn−1

Z x n−1

0

Z x 2

0

1

x1

Z x 1

0

g(x0)dx0dx1 dxn

xn+1

Z Z

0≤x0≤x1≤ ≤xn≤xn+1

g(x0)dx0dx1 dxn

x1 xn

xn+1

Z xn+1 0

g(x0)

Z Z

x 0 ≤x 1 ≤ ≤x n ≤x n+1

dx1 dxn

x1 xn

!

dx0 Therefore with the notation

hn(a, b) =

Z Z

a≤x1≤ ≤xn≤b

dx1 dxn

x1 xn and x = xn+1, t = x0 we have

fn+1(x) = 1

x

Z x 0

g(t)hn(t, x)dt

Using that hn(a, b) is the same for any permutation of x1, , xn and the fact that the integral

is 0 on any hyperplanes (xi= xj) we get that

n! hn(a, b) =

Z Z

a≤x1, ,xn≤b

dx1 dxn

x1 xn

=

Z b a

Z b a

dx1 dxn

x1 xn

=

Z b a

dx x

!n

= (log(b/a))n

Therefore

fn+1(x) = 1

x

Z x 0

g(t)(log(x/t))

n

n! dt.

Note that if g is constant then the definition gives fn = g This implies on one hand that we must have

1 x

Z x 0

(log(x/t))n

n! dt = 1 and on the other hand that, by replacing g by g − g(0), we can suppose that g(0) = 0

Let x ∈ (0, 1] and ε > 0 be fixed By continuity there exists a 0 < δ < x and an M such that

|g(t)| < ε on [0, δ] and |g(t)| ≤ M on [0, 1] Since

lim

n→∞

(log(x/δ))n

there exists an n0 sucht that log(x/δ))n/n! < ε whenever n ≥ n0 Then, for any n ≥ n0, we have

|fn+1(x)| ≤ 1

x

Z x 0

|g(t)|(log(x/t))

n

x

Z δ 0

ε(log(x/t))

n

1 x

Z x δ

|g(t)|(log(x/δ))

n

x

Z x 0

ε(log(x/t))

n

1 x

Z x δ

M εdt

≤ ε + M ε

Therefore limnf (x) = 0 = g(0)

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6 Let f (z) = anz + an−1z + + a1z + a0be a polynomial with real coefficients Prove that

if all roots of f lie in the left half-plane {z ∈ C : Re z < 0} then

akak+3< ak+1ak+2

holds for every k = 0, 1, , n − 3 (20 points)

Solution The polynomial f is a product of linear and quadratic factors, f (z) = Q

i(kiz + li) · Q

j(pjz2+ qjz + rj), with ki, li, pj, qj, rj∈ R Since all roots are in the left half-plane, for each i, ki

and li are of the same sign, and for each j, pj, qj, rj are of the same sign, too Hence, multiplying

f by −1 if necessary, the roots of f don’t change and f becomes the polynomial with all positive coefficients

For the simplicity, we extend the sequence of coefficients by an+1 = an+2 = = 0 and

a−1= a−2= = 0 and prove the same statement for −1 ≤ k ≤ n − 2 by induction

For n ≤ 2 the statement is obvious: ak+1 and ak+2 are positive and at least one of ak−1 and

ak+3is 0; hence, ak+1ak+2> akak+3= 0

Now assume that n ≥ 3 and the statement is true for all smaller values of n Take a divisor of

f (z) which has the form z2+ pz + q where p and q are positive real numbers (Such a divisor can

be obtained from a conjugate pair of roots or two real roots.) Then we can write

f (z) = (z2+ pz + q)(bn−2zn−2+ + b1z + b0) = (z2+ pz + q)g(x) (1) The roots polynomial g(z) are in the left half-plane, so we have bk+1bk+2< bkbk+3 for all −1 ≤

k ≤ n − 4 Defining bn−1 = bn = = 0 and b−1 = b−2 = = 0 as well, we also have

bk+1bk+2≤ bkbk+3for all integer k

Now we prove ak+1ak+2> akak+3 If k = −1 or k = n − 2 then this is obvious since ak+1ak+2

is positive and akak+3= 0 Thus, assume 0 ≤ k ≤ n − 3 By an easy computation,

ak+1ak+2− akak+3=

= (qbk+1+ pbk+ bk−1)(qbk+2+ pbk+1+ bk) − (qbk+ pbk−1+ bk−2)(qbk+3+ pbk+2+ bk+1) =

= (bk−1bk− bk−2bk+1) + p(b2k− bk−2bk+2) + q(bk−1bk+2− bk−2bk+3)+

+p2(bkbk+1− bk−1bk+2) + q2(bk+1bk+2− bkbk+3) + pq(b2k+1− bk−1bk+3)

We prove that all the six terms are non-negative and at least one is positive Term p2(bkbk+1−

bk−1bk+2) is positive since 0 ≤ k ≤ n − 3 Also terms bk−1bk− bk−2bk+1and q2(bk+1bk+2− bkbk+3) are non-negative by the induction hypothesis

To check the sign of p(b2

k− bk−2bk+2) consider

bk−1(b2k− bk−2bk+2) = bk−2(bkbk+1− bk−1bk+2) + bk(bk−1bk− bk−2bk+1) ≥ 0

If bk−1> 0 we can divide by it to obtain b2

k−bk−2bk+2≥ 0 Otherwise, if bk−1= 0, either bk−2= 0

or bk+2= 0 and thus b2− bk−2bk+2= b2≥ 0 Therefore, p(b2− bk−2bk+2) ≥ 0 for all k Similarly, pq(b2

k+1− bk−1bk+3) ≥ 0

The sign of q(bk−1bk+2− bk−2bk+3) can be checked in a similar way Consider

bk+1(bk−1bk+2− bk−2bk+3) = bk−1(bk+1bk+2− bkbk+3) + bk+3(bk−1bk− bk−2bk+1) ≥ 0

If bk+1> 0, we can divide by it Otherwise either bk−2 = 0 or bk+3 = 0 In all cases, we obtain

bk−1bk+2− bk−2bk+3≥ 0

Now the signs of all terms are checked and the proof is complete

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